₦airaland Forum

SIMPLE PAST TENSE (SPaT)

The SPaT usually means that this action ended in the past.

RULE: Actions that are: -
1. Happened Quickly
2. Happened Overtime or,
3. Were habits in the past.

Example: In this examples, how these actions appear will be indicated in a bracket.
i. I arrived home at five. (Action 1)
ii. Yesterday, I worked on my Math homework for three hours. (Action 2)
iii. When he was six, my son Tolu watched the video tape '3 Idiot' every day. (Action 3)

HOW DO I MAKE SPaT statement?
Simple verb + ed or Irregular past form (if the verb is irregular)

Example: 1. Ralph called his mother to wish her happy Birthday
2. I taught (irregular verb) high school for seven years before teaching at Ben's high school.
3. Blessing and Joy studied French in college.

NEGATIVE STATEMENT & QUESTION on SPaT
NOTE: The only word used for negative statement and question of SPaT is 'DID' and under this is where simple mistakes do occur
RULE: Did + not + simple form of verb

Example on Negative: 1. I did not see Betty at the mall
2. The kids didn't eat their food at dinner tonight.

Question Example: 1. Did you wash the dishes?
2. Why did you pour oil on my cloth?

THINGS TO AVOID
Like I said earlier, people do make simple mistakes with SPaT in its negative statement and question, how?

We see people using the past verb "DID" with the same past tense of simple verb
For instance, you don't say; I didn't SAW her there, SAW is the past tense of SEE.

How to use it: i. Did I TELL (told) you about the party that Joe is having next week?
ii. I didn't DRINK (drank) coffee in college, but I DRANK it a lot in grad school.

ANOTHER WAY OF MAKING MISTAKE WITH SPaT
Another way people do make mistake with SPaT is confusing it with SIMPLE PRESENT TENSE (SPT) our first treated Tense.
For instance, QUE: when DID she arrive? ANS: She arrives around five.

Here we see a question being asked in SPaT and an answer is being given in SPT. The best answer to this question would be, She arrived around five.

CeoMYN:
Attack my points.

And whose point did I attack before?

Explain that verse to me!

Rilwayne001:
Does that make him Allah?

Yes it is since both The Spirit and Word of Allah are uncreated and only God is uncreated.

Well well, i used to hold that view before, but not any longer. Could you now please answer my question?

So you mean you were once in delusion of Muhammad in the Bible before but now you're free!

You know what start spreading the Gospel of Truth to your fellow Muslims that there was no single prophecy of Muhammad in the Holy Bible. You can begin here by open a thread to release your fellow Muslims who still hold to that delusion.

What you called question isn't a question because what I can infer from your post is a denial of truth with the word "Anonymous writer".

CeoMYN:
I was a devoted christian nigga, the type that pray every 10mins. Anywhere I go back then I always prayed with Jesu'ss name.

If this is the reason you called yourself a Christian it's very sad.

Devil and Demos know that Jesus is the Son of God, does that make them a believer?

Let me start with you with this verse by telling us how you understand it.
"Wherefore I give you to understand, that no man speaking by the Spirit of God calleth Jesus accursed: and that no man can say that Jesus is the Lord, but by the Holy Ghost." 1 Corin 12:3

Rilwayne001:
Lol, when was John written and who wrote it? Have you ever asked yourself these questions?

It should have been, why does Qur'an called Isa Allah's Spirit and Word?

because I could still remember how Muslims have been going up and down to proof the prophecy of the coming of Muhammad from the same book of John.

Rilwayne001:
Rather what did the anonymous writer of John mean by claiming Jesus said I am and at the same time claiming that the Jews tried to stone him so as to make it seem as if he was referring to himself as god.

Agony of Muslim brother who his book said Isa is the spirit and the word of Allah yet still thinking that it's the Author of the book of John that assigned Divinity to Jesus Christ with 'I Am'.

Let's continue...

PRESENT PROGRESSIVE TENSE, (PrPT)

RULE: 1. This action is happening RIGHT now (More generally)
2. The action is unfinished and still continuing
NOTE: Don't use PrPT with STATIVE Verb. This will be expounded later!

Example: i. You're reading a booklet about verb tenses.
ii. This is my friend Joe. He is writing a book titled 'who let the dog out?'

On a serious note, people do not make much mistake with PrPT because is one of the simplest Verb tenses but what we're going to look at in PrPT is when people used it with STATIVE VERB.

What is STATIVE Verb?
Answer: Stative verbs are verbs that do not refer to a physical action; they express a state or condition (things which are permanent or things which don't have a beginning, or end).

Example: To Adore, To agree, To believe, To promise, To image e.t.c you can get more of STATIVE verbs on net.

Now, let me say this. Some verbs can be both stative and dynamic i.e Have, Think e.t.c

You don't say for instance: I am agreeing with you, You are believing what he told you e.t.c

analice107:
Sir, i sent you a pm. pls reply its important. thanks

I have done that!

metronaija:
After the Kaduna state government has issued an order declaring the Islamic Movement in Nigeria (IMN) led by Ibrahim Zakzaky, an unlawful society yesterday. Some members of IMN were seen today exercising their right 2 freedom of movement, speech and expression today in Kaduna. See photos below

http://www.metronaija.com/2016/10/photos-shiite-sect-members-protest-in.html

I saw them in Zaria today too and the protest has been going on in Abuja since mid-week.

My question still remains, what did Zakzaky do? That warrants his arrest because I was in Zaria the very day when that genocide was committed against those people.

FriendChoice:


Matthew 7:21. Not everyone who says to Me, 'Lord, Lord,' shall enter the kingdom of heaven, but he who does the will of My Father in heaven.

22 Many will say to Me in that day, 'Lord, Lord, have we not prophesied in Your name, cast out demons in Your name, and done many wonders in Your name?'

23 And then I will declare to them, 'I never knew you; depart from Me, you who practice lawlessness!'

You now agree that Jesus is the one who sent Muhammad.

Jesus said and I quote [size=14pt]"whom I (Jesus) will send unto you from the Father," and "but if I (Jesus) depart, I (Jesus) will send him (Muhammad) unto"[/size]

If not explain these statements of Jesus from those verses you believed it's a reference to your prophet.

Copy and paste won't favour you.

This is how a frustrated voice use to sound.

FriendChoice:
I am very clear in my explanations, I don't have your time anymore. When other people read they will understand me. No need to waste my time anymore on you. Even when it's clear you're wrong. You closed your eyes. Bye

According to those verses you're quoting up and down.

Jesus said and I quote [size=14pt]"whom I (Jesus) will send unto you from the Father," and "but if I (Jesus) depart, I (Jesus) will send him (Muhammad) unto"[/size]

How your conscience is at rest after reading these two key points from those verses still baffles me. It shows that the covenant you have with devil is so strong than even Allah himself can deliver you from.

If you know you can't address my points one by one just say it, people will understand your delusion.

FriendChoice:
The message is clear, Prophet Muhammad peace be upon him is the final messenger, his message will be with you forever. No prophet God will sent again, the message of Islam will remained till here after.

So it is the MESSAGE of Muhammad that will be with you for ever not Muhammad himself any more see the way you've been scamming yourself. But the verses say THE COMFORTER and NOT the MESSAGE of the COMFORTER.

Muhammad peace be upon him was with God before Jesus left

LOL......so Muhammad actually DEVINE

. According to Bible God is father to many.
For as many as are led by the Spirit of God, they are the sons of God. . Roman 8:14

Stop this attitude because it's dangerous for your health and salvation.

But do you believe God as a Father which Jesus called Him in more than one verses you've been quoting since

[size=14pt]THESE ARE MY POINTS YOU FAILLED TO ADDRESS BUT ATTACKING STRAWMAN[/size]
As you name those verses:
1. "And I will pray my Father" Does Jesus have a Father?...."that he may abide with you forever" Where is Muhammad today?

[size=14pt]2. "whom I will send unto you from the Father," So Muhammad is with God before Jesus sent him to Muslims [/size] Also, "which proceedeth from the Father" Muhammad proceedeth from the Father. waoooo I don't know that God is actually a Father to Muhammad. Lastly "he shall testify of me." So Muhammad was actually a servant of Jesus testifying up and down about Him.

[size=14pt]3. "but if I depart, I will send him unto" Jesus emphasised it again that He will send Muhammad.[/size]

1. He will glorify ME(Jesus), How does Muhammad glory Jesus?
[size=14pt]2. He shall receive of MINE(Jesus), Did Muhammad receive anything from Jesus? What is that thing that belongs to Jesus that Muhammad received from Him?[/size]
3. He may abide with you FOREVER, Where is Muhammad today?
[size=14pt]4. In fact this one is most astonished among them, but if I(Jesus) depart, I(Jesus) will send him(Muhammad) unto you. Do you agree that Jesus is the one who sent Muhammad?[/size]
5. But I(Jesus) go to my FATHER, Do you believe Jesus has a Father?

I know the silly thing you'll come up with is that those verses are corrupted.

Islam is the only non Christian faith that makes it an article of faith to believe in Jesus. No Muslim is Muslim if he don't believe in Jesus. Because Jesus is a Muslim and servant of Allah and he submit his will to God.


Muhammad pbum (the comforter) has come and he has testify to all mankind that Jesus the son of Mary is a servant of God.

He has testify what was revealed to Jesus that
[b] ‘And there is no God else beside Me; a just God and a Savior; there is none beside Me. Look to Me, and be saved, all the ends of the earth; for I am God, and there is none else.’ ( Isaiah 45:21-22,
Jonah 3:5-10 )


And says in the Perfect scripture.

(Remember) when the angels said,

“O Mary, God gives you good news of a word from Him (God), whose name is the Messiah Jesus, son of Mary, revered in this world and the Hereafter, and one of those brought near (to God). He will speak to the people from his cradle and as a man, and he is of the
righteous.” She said, “My Lord, how can I have a child when no mortal has touched me?” He said, “So (it will be). God creates what He wills. If He decrees a thing, He says to it only, ‘Be!’ and it is.” (Quran, 3:45-47)

Jesus was born miraculously by the command of God, the same command that had brought Adam into being with neither a father nor a mother. God has
said:

The case of Jesus with God is like the case
of Adam. He created him from dust, and then He said to him, “Be!” and he came into being. (Quran, 3:59)

During his prophetic mission, Jesus performed many miracles. God tells us that Jesus said:

“I have come to you with a sign from your
Lord. I make for you the shape of a bird out of clay, I breathe into it, and it becomes a bird by God’s permission. I heal the blind from birth and the leper. And I bring the dead to life by God’s permission. And I tell you what you eat and what you store in your houses....” (Quran, 3:49)

And Bible says :

"Fellow Israelites, listen to this: Jesus of Nazareth was a man accredited by God to you by miracles, wonders and signs, which God did among you through him, as you yourselves know.



If I am going to worship any person then it will be the fatherless, motherless son of God Adam pbum, rather than a man, a servant, a slave of Allah pbum who was begotten by a woman. [/b]

[size=14pt]NOBODY ASK YOU THESE AND YOU'RE STILL PREAMBULATING[/size]

FriendChoice:
1. John chapter 14 verse 16:
"And I will pray the Father, and he shall give you another Comforter, that he may abide with you forever."

2. Gospel of John chapter 15 verse 26:
"But when the Comforter is come, whom I will send unto you from the Father, even the Spirit of truth, which proceedeth from the Father, he shall testify of me."

3. Gospel of John chapter 16 verse 7:
"Nevertheless I tell you the truth; it is expedient for you that I go away: for if I go not away, the Comforter will not come unto you; but if I depart, I will send him unto
you".

"Ahmed" or "Muhammad" meaning "the one who praises" or "the praised one" is almost the translation of the Greek word Periclytos . In the Gospel of John 14:16,
15:26, and 16:7. The word 'Comforter' is used in the English translation for the Greek word Paracletos which means advocate or a kind friend rather than a comforter.

Paracletos is the warped reading for Periclytos.
Jesus (pbuh) actually prophesised Ahmed by name.

As you name those verses:
1. "And I will pray my Father" Does Jesus have a Father?...."that he may abide with you forever" Where is Muhammad today?

2. "whom I will send unto you from the Father," So Muhammad is with God before Jesus sent him to Muslims Also, "which proceedeth from the Father" Muhammad proceedeth from the Father. waoooo I don't know that God is actually a Father to Muhammad. Lastly "he shall testify of me." So Muhammad was actually a servant of Jesus testifying up and down about Him.

3. "but if I depart, I will send him unto" Jesus emphasised it again that He will send Muhammad.

I know the silly thing you'll come up with is that those verses are corrupted.

But let me wait and watch!

Even the Devil himself will be laughing at your darken heart; you see the truth but purposely covered it with lies.
God will have mercy on your soul.

FriendChoice:
"""""...... I have yet many things to say unto you, but ye cannot bear them now. Howbeit when HE , the Spirit of truth, is come, HE will guide you into all truth: for HE shall not speak of himself; but whatsoever HE shall hear, [that] shall HE speak: and HE will shew you things to come. HE SHALL GLORIFY ME: for HE shall receive of mine, and shall shew [it] unto you."


John 14:16 "And I will pray the Father, and he shall give you another Comforter, that he may abide with you for ever"

John 16:7-14 "Nevertheless I tell you the truth; It is expedient for you that I go away: for if I go not away, the Comforter will not come unto you; but if I depart, I will send him unto you.

And when he is come, he will reprove the world of sin, and of righteousness, and of judgment: Of sin, because they believe not on me; Of righteousness, because I go to my Father, and ye see me no more; Of judgment, because the prince of this world is judged.

Let me point out many things in those verses you quoted and let's see whether you agree with it.
What the HE will do according to those verses.
1. He will glorify ME(Jesus), How does Muhammad glory Jesus?
2. He shall receive of MINE(Jesus), Did Muhammad receive anything from Jesus? What is that thing that belongs to Jesus that Muhammad received from Him?
3. He may abide with you FOREVER, Where is Muhammad today?
4. In fact this one is most astonished among them, but if I(Jesus) depart, I(Jesus) will send him(Muhammad) unto you. Do you agree that Jesus is the one who sent Muhammad?
5. But I(Jesus) go to my FATHER, Do you believe Jesus has a Father?

Who is blind is blind, only God can make him see.

The only one blind is the one who perverted the truth in the face of evidence.

And only God can make you see the truth in those verses indeed.

Rilwayne001:
Can you now see why i said arguing with you is a waste of time. As usual - as a typical christard- instead of answering the question i asked, you deviated by bringing up another thing. Covering the loopholes in Christianity by claiming Muhammad also did it. Lol.

I already told you, i won't be doing this with you since it will end up to be a futile engagement. If you have no idea to the question i asked, you could have easily shut up and find some other thread and jobless people to make do your silly argument.

Lol...it's like a Christian accusing Muslims that, how can Muhammad say he received revelation from God but God doesn't reveal things.

Let's just simply forget about this since you are not reAdy to answer my question.

I didn't see any question here.

Oh lol.. So you will be the one to tell me the question i should be asking and i have no right to ask you questions on my own? Haha. Shows that you know nothing. Just simply say you don't have the answer to my question, it's very simple

You see, simple comprehension is hard. If you're accusing Christians as having blind faith simply because they say you need Holy spirit for interpretation & understanding of the Bible, revelation & knowing true doctrine to God. We can then ask, how does their claim different from what Muhammad claimed about Qur'an and Islam?

Which automatically refer you back to my question. Must one become a Christian before one can understand, interpret the Bible in its correct form

As far as I understand, Bible was written in a human languages and expresses the mind the of God in a human understanding.
So different people have interpreted Bible both believers and unbelievers and both have come to same understanding and conclusion.

as well as receiving revelation from God and knowing the doctrines of worship that leads to the Christian god?

This part is very funny. If you as a Muslims receives revelation from Christian God the only Creator of the universe and knows the doctrines of worship that leads to Him, will you still be a Muslim

In other words you are blaming Muhammad for the blind faith Christians hold on to?

Just as you're following the blind faith your Muhammad laid down.

How did you know that? Are you there when God was revealing it? What make you believe Muhammad also didn't receive any revelation?

Yeah, this is where Christianity wins and Islam lost.
The same Spirit who revealed the mind of God to people of old, He's still in work today. That's why if you're a Christian and you haven't received revelation of God through the Holy Spirit you need to work on your faith. In fact Jesus Himself said "He that hath my commandments, and keepeth them, he it is that loveth me: and he that loveth me shall be loved of my Father, and I will love him, and will manifest myself to him." John14:21

So you can see that Christians don't have blind faith like Muslims who Allah can't reveal himself to but Christians experience spirituality through the Holy spirit everyday.

If Muhammad revelations are true it won't contradict the previous revelations.

But how did you know that those who claimed to have receive revelation from God are not lying? Do you even know these people?

As if you know Muhammad too.
That's why the Holy spirit is there. What Jesus and the apostles said many years ago can be confirmed by any Christian today through the Holy spirit. Remember, Muhammad also claimed that Holy spirit brought down the Qur'an. Now, how do you know whether what he claimed was right or wrong?

Like i said, you are trying to deviate from my point. In your attempt to cover your inability to answer my question, you are trying to introduce another argument. Sorry, i will pass.

I didn't deviate, just respond to your post accordingly.

Rilwayne001:
Doesn't Christianity based on blind faith when it claims you have to have the holy spirit before you can interpret, understand the Bible as well as receiving revelation from God and also knowing the doctrine that leads to god?

Ohhh So Muhammad own wasn't blind faith when Allah revealed and interpreted Qur'an to him through the alleged claims of the Holy spirit revelation.

The question you should've asked yourself before making statement out of frustration was, how does God reveal His will to people?

By the way, you Muslims quote Bible as you like; is it Holy Spirit that interpreted those verses to you

Now, this^ is the question that you seem not to fathom so far in my previous posts.

But your question is myopic because you forgot that Muhammad made the same claim.

What are the things that is known of God and how did you get to know them all?

God revealed them, and one of the thing is God can not lie but Muhammad said Allah is the BEST DECIEVER

Rilwayne001:
Or maybe you will have to read what i said again because it seems you didn't really understand the point I'm making their. I never said because i didn't get a response from truthmans2012, that makes Christianity anti-questioning and reason, my point is, why do all those who are led by the alleged holy spirit deviate in interpretation, understanding and doctrines of the Bible?7

No! You talked about Christianity NOT ALLOW for questioning and reason before you said some people used Holy spirit as a claim for what they do.

And you haven't answered my question, which blind faith do you have a Christian because you said Christian do have blind faith?

This will only lead to futile argument—something I'm not ready to do.

But you know how to start one.

Tell us whether Muhammad didn't make any claim that contrary to what is known of God.

Rilwayne001:
Christianity doesn't allow for questioning and reason. The other day i asked truthmans2012 about the concept of Trinity, he said i would need the holy spirit to understand the concept. I now asked him that, could it be that you (annunaki), for you not to understand the concept, does it mean that you don't have the holy spirit? I am yet to get a response for that.

It's evident that you're just lying here, because someone can't answer you so you must conclude that Christianity doesn't ALLOW for questioning and reason.

It is only in Christianity, that you have to first of all have blind faith before you can understand the way of God, it isn't so in Islam. It is only in Christianity that everyone claim to have the holy spirit as guidance when actually they all differ in the interpretation of the Bible as well as the doctrine they follow.

Tell me the blind faith you first have as a Christian.

Thank God you said "CLAIM" which means anybody can make any claim including Muhammad saying it's Allah who told him to marry Aisha. That's is a claim too!

You know all these, don't you? Yet you go about lying for Jesus.

Imaging lying for Jesus, do you even understand what you're saying?

dolphinheart:
I believe I've answered your questions several times!

You haven't! And don't dodge it.

I posted some verses from two translations you accepted, you initially claimed that those translations don't have verses that give different meanings when they are translated. After giving you those verses, I gave some points and asked some questions which up till now you refuse to respond to. I even put those points and questions in another color for you to see, but still you did not respond to it.
It is clear that those verses did not give the same meaning, neither do they contain same content or issues.

The reason why I didn't respond is that, I know you're looking for away to divert from the point have raised.
Which I don't have time for, so safe yourself from all this because it won't help you.

My statement still stands, I accept ALL THOSE Translations I listed that time and I can see you've misunderstood point up there but I don't have time for that.

here below is the post again, let's see if you will a dress the different issues raised when comparing the translations of each verse.
(Note it is evident that both translations can't be correct, since you say you accept both translations, do you then accept incorrect translations)

"[b]maybe you did not read the points I made after I quoted the verses, Ill repost them and put the point in red for you to read and respond to, note it is not about accuracy, but the difference in meaning and message passed!
(1) 1 John 5: 7
NIV translation : For there are three that testify:
KJV says: For there are three that bear record in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost: and these three are one.
Apart from the fact that they do not have the same words , they also do not have the same meaning or are they telling us the same thing?
so can you explain these differences in that verse?

(2) rev 1:8
NIV says :"I am the Alpha and the Omega," says the Lord God, "who is, and who was, and who is to come, the Almighty."
KJV says : I am Alpha and Omega, the beginning and the ending, saith the Lord, which is, and which was, and which is to come, the Almighty.
the words " the begginING and the ending" cannot be found in the NIV, pls tell us why, cus such words go a long way in telling us who that verse is referring to.
are those words meant to be their like in the KJV or not meant to be their like in the NIV?

(3) isaiah 9:6
NIV says: You have enlarged the nation and increased their joy; they rejoice before you as people rejoice at the harvest, as warriors rejoice when dividing the plunder.
KJV says: Thou hast multiplied the nation, and not increased the joy: they joy before thee according to the joy in harvest, and as men rejoice when they divide the spoil.
NIV helps us to understand that God increased their joy while KJV says the opposite, can you espanciate on the difference between the two and tell us which is right and which is wrong? cus they give us different meaning!

another one is 1 ti:3:16, kjv says "God was manifest in the flesh", but the NIV says " he appeared in the flesh".
pls tell us, did the NIV translate the Greek word for God "theos" to "he" in that verse or did the KJV Translate the Greek word for "he" to "god"?

If not because copy and paste that you're doing, how will you know that what you quoted from Isaiah 9:6 wasn't exert content.
Just continue.

you have been asking several questions about the NWT, I asked you questions about the translations you accepted and agree with, but you refuse to answer any of my questions.
(Note that I even numbered the scriptures qouted)

I told you, I accept more than ONE TRANSALTION in all over thousands of Bible translations we have. I didn't hold anyone above another.

But the simple questions I've been asking are;
1. Is there any VERSE you found WRONG in NWT just as you can find in those translations you're talking about?
2. If you use NIV and KJV to cross check each other before you know that one is accurate and the other is inaccurate, which translation do you use to cross check NWT before you accepted the LITTLE verses you've claimed to accept?
3. Is there another translation you accept apart from NWT? If Yes! State it here....Simple

All this episode won't change my posit.

I have not checkmate any version with any version yet, I just quoted the verses from 2 translations you agree with and asked you to explain the difference in words, messages and meaning!

So why do you reject some verses and on what basis do you reject them?

that so far, I can use in in my study of God's word

So, it means you uphold it above any other translation. SIMPLE....which is what you're trying to say all this while.

so why the questions?

To get the above statement you just confirmed.

I do not understand

I mean, what do you use to check the accuracy of NWT before you could accept it to study God's word, so that we can use it for other translation accuracy too.

you say you accepted the two translations , I brought out some verses for you to explain the differences between the two, now you are asking me the same question you don't want to answer!

NO! I didn't ask the same question. When I said, I accept the two translations I know what I'm saying. But you who trying to make a point by quoting two different translations should come to conclusion like with this evidence NIV is more correct than KJV or based on how other scholars explained so so so verse both NIV and KJV are wrong.

So, you must answer that question unless, the point I'm making here is beyond your comprehension.

In Summary this is my point:
If you accept NWT verses on what basis? how do you come to that conclusion? Can the same study you applied to NWT before accepted it be applied to other translations for right judge?

So, stop perambulating and go straight to the point.

kaycexx:
John is Elijah...

John later died.

Then who is Enoch?

jaysparx:
Please stop criticizing witnesses, I am one of Jehovah's Witnesses so U can ask me anything

I don't know when criticism becomes bring out fact from Watchtower Publications itself.

How are you different from the rest of JWs here on NL?

WHAT YOU SHOULD KNOW ABOUT SPT
The Verb 'BE' is commonly appeared in day to day statement we make. In fact we can't do without it.

RULE 1: If the subject is 'I' use 'AM'
Examples: I am a teacher, I'm often absent-minded, I am in class every Wednesday at 9:00.

NOTE: Some people don't know the different between "I'm" & 'am'. "I'm" is the short form of 'I am', you only use 'AM' at the beginning of a question statement of Verb 'BE'.

RULE 2: If the subject is 'We', 'You', or 'They' use 'ARE'
Examples: You are or You're a teacher, 'We are or we're' so happy that you're here.

NOTE: People do confuse "We're" with the verb 'Were' Take note!

RULE 3: If the subject is 'She', 'He', or 'It' use 'IS'
Examples: She is a teacher, Buhari(He) is the President of Nigeria, My Car(It) is in the parking lot.

NOTE: People do confuse "IT'S" with the pronoun 'ITS' Take note!

QUESTION with Verb 'BE' (Question word + verb BE + subject + statement)
>>Am I taller than your cousin Seun?
>>Are Bola and Jude married?
>>Where are my car keys?
>>Why is the sky blue?

SPT in Future time clauses and If-clauses
Future time clauses and Future If-clauses do not use future tenses; instead, they use one of the present tenses, usually SPT.
Examples: >>Before Tunde (will go) 'leaves' for school next Tuesday, she's going to do her Maths homework.
>>After I (will go) 'go' to the store tomorrow, I'll give you a call.
>>When Shola (will get) 'gets' home tonight, he will cook dinner.

NOTE: Initially, the future words inside the bracket are the ones we suppose used but we use the SPT underlined.

Lastly, what we're going to look at in SPT is; USING SPT WHEN DISCUSSING LITERATURE
In academic situations, especially when writing papers, it's traditional to us SPT as the main tense to tell the story of a work of fiction like novel, a play, or a short story, even if the work itself is written in the past tense.

Example: Romeo and Juliet tells the tragic story of two young lovers. Two families in the town of Verona, the Capulets and the Montagues, hate one another. Romeo is the son of Montagues family and Juliet is the daughter of the Capulets family. Romeo and Juliet meet] at a party, fall in love, and secretly make plans to get married. Soon after young couple marry, Juliet's cousin, Tybalt, kills Romeo's closest friend. Romeo, in a blind range, kills Tybalt. This starts a series of events that ends in the two lovers death.

jagugu88li:
[/color]

BOOOOM, you hit the nail there bro!

Good job!

Thanks ma

safarigirl:
nein

OK, Kann ich dir helfen?

safarigirl:
Danke. Happy Sunday

Sprechen Sie German?

dolphinheart:
no, but note, my study of other translations is very limited.

That's why you can rate NWT above other translations which your studies about is so limited.....contunuuu

any translation I come across, but it's based on a particular verse, not the whole translation. and it is also dependent on the topic under discussion.

Then have you come across a single VERSE in NWT that you against

Answer my question....how do you know that very particular verse is wrong

maybe you did not read the points I made after I quoted the verses, Ill repost them and put the point in red for you to read and respond to, note it is not about accuracy, but the difference in meaning and message passed!

(1) 1 John 5: 7
NIV translation : For there are three that testify:
KJV says: For there are three that bear record in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost: and these three are one.
Apart from the fact that they do not have the same words , they also do not have the same meaning or are they telling us the same thing?
so can you explain these differences in that verse?

(2) rev 1:8
NIV says :"I am the Alpha and the Omega," says the Lord God, "who is, and who was, and who is to come, the Almighty."
KJV says : I am Alpha and Omega, the beginning and the ending, saith the Lord, which is, and which was, and which is to come, the Almighty.
the words " the begginING and the ending" cannot be found in the NIV, pls tell us why, cus such words go a long way in telling us who that verse is referring to.
are those words meant to be their like in the KJV or not meant to be their like in the NIV?

(3) isaiah 9:6
NIV says: You have enlarged the nation and increased their joy; they rejoice before you as people rejoice at the harvest, as warriors rejoice when dividing the plunder.
KJV says: Thou hast multiplied the nation, and not increased the joy: they joy before thee according to the joy in harvest, and as men rejoice when they divide the spoil.
NIV helps us to understand that God increased their joy while KJV says the opposite, can you espanciate on the difference between the two and tell us which is right and which is wrong? cus they give us different meaning!

another one is 1 ti:3:16, kjv says "God was manifest in the flesh", but the NIV says " he appeared in the flesh".
pls tell us, did the NIV translate the Greek word for God "theos" to "he" in that verse or did the KJV Translate the Greek word for "he" to "god"?

I read your point and understood them. Using NIV with KJV shows something was wrong with some particular verses. Now you have one translation you can use to check mate the other.

Which translation do you use to check the little verses you've studied in NWT before you can say that you don't have problem with NWT

I'm not here to discuss how I arrive at a point, I'm here to discuss the point I arrive at!

Which point do you arrive at on NWT?

good that you have such knowledge

As if I care...

the scriptures

So which scripture do you use for NWT?

no, I just gave you differences in meaning and message from 2 translations you agree with.

So, which translation is accurate between the two?

you so not determine how I study and what I study for, you can only have issues with the result of my study.

Your studies must be fair not base on any doctrine or a believe in a particular translation before you can say yes I've studied well.

I know the result of your studies won't be anything other than, NWT is the only accurate translation among the over one thousand Translations we have.

truthislight:
Is everlasting life on earth not also a reward? Rev 21:4. There shall be no more death. In fact, for that reward of living where there will be no more death is the ultimate reason for my existence, Without that hope, life is purely vain.

Rats and man would have strive the same.

Cry me a river....

You can continue to fool yourself.

That verse said "YOUR REWARD IS GREAT IN HEAVEN"

Yet you're spewing trash here. The way you people manipulate scriptures only God Himself can deliver you. You take every phrase in that verse literal but giving ony this one another meaning. SMH

truthislight:
Jehovah sent his son into Mary. That is what the bible says.

This is the true statement of the Bible.

Go up come down, that is what that matters. attempting to prove vodo out of this is not reasonable.

But let's see how this whether it's a vodo or logically plausible.

While Jesus was in the worm of Mary, [size=14pt]he was alive.[/size] he was not dead. if you see other thing from that simple statement, it is your mind that is responsible for that.

@bold is my concern, which means the DIVINE PERSON sent into Mary was STILL ALIVE as A DIVINE PERSON and Mary provided a human FLESH to Him, Right? If you have contrary opinion as NO! Then, the person sent into Mary's womb as a DIVINE person was the person just CHANGE to 100% human? Which means it wasn't the Son anymore but ordinary human being like you and I.

God can make Christ to be small or to be an Embryo. As long Christ was not dead in the worm of Mary, that is what that matters. It was Christ. And it was a miracle.

Yes, but it means THE DIVINE JESUS was only covered with FLESH which makes Him have two natures since He was alive inside Mary.

Do you agree?

DoctorAlien:
Still not forgetting this:

Only a being with demons can make such statement.

Jesus who is the EXERT IMPRINT of God, the IMAGE of the INVISIBLE God.

The person whom if you've seen, you've seen His Father

Yet JWs can still open their mouth and say such thing against Him

truthislight:
Why cant you see that there is a difference between Materializing and being given birth to by a woman?

JW teach that Jesus was raised as a spirit person from the dead, when he materialized to appear to his disciples, did they denied that after his materializing that he was no longer a spirit person? NO

Hence, this are two different things you are missing together, there is a difference between Being given birth to by a woman and a spirit materializing.

Besides, Jesus paid the ransom for a physical human person and not that of a spirit person. It makes no sense to say a spirit person was used to pay the ransom of a Human, e no match. It is called "ransom". Supreme Justice was at play, not 419(obtain by trick).

I don't like people deliberately leave point out of selfish interest and begin to address another point.

Let's start again!

What did Jehovah send into Mary?

JMAN05:
Let's have it so. Don't want insincere discussion here.

Shalom!

what is insincere here Am I the one who quoted that Bible verses

Equating YOUR REWARD IS IN HEAVEN with God's kingdom is the highest manipulation on earth.

Don't forget Jesus said YOUR REWARD IS IN HEAVEN and you want to inherit the earth. Who will help you collect your reward in heaven

JMAN05:
Gods kingdom is established in heaven, it will rule over those on earth. Matt 5:5, Psalm 37:9

Is it God's kingdom that will be established in heaven is the REWARD IN HEAVEN Jesus was talking about nii

Rev 5:10
and you made them to be a kingdom and priests to our God, and they are to rule as kings over the earth

Don't twist my question mr man, you quoted verses which you used to proof that JWs are the true Christians.

Jesus said your REWARD IS IN HEAVEN how you equate this to God's kingdom still baffles me.