₦airaland Forum

hakmah:
This is an interesting topic. Hmmmm!

OneJ seems to have made a thorough research. Ansd there are dudes up there that know what they are saying too. This question has been on for long.

Please, permit me to make this famous definition of man. Man is a spirit, he lives in a body, and he has a soul .

The real mystery is after we die, where is the soul? So, I think to understand this topic well, a stand must be taking on these 3 parts of man: body, soul and spirit. There is no way to prove anything without defining the three and explain the relationship among the three parts. Some do not even believe man is a spirit.

This is an interesting topic I want to know more about myself. Anyone who can do justice to this topic should kindly do it. But I kinda like how OP was just straight forward. But I believe there are other theories.

Thanks!

Barristter07:
Shows how confused they are , I never assumed anything.

Based on this statement made by compelling truth , " every person you have ever met IS A SOUL , living in a body . emphasis on " living in " shows clear distinction that the body is not the person.

The person is that Soul , living in that body ... Do you agree with this ?




Means he never died .

He was living in a body , Agree ?



It did . Isaiah 53:11,12

alBHAGDADI:
All these JW guys, I thought we already settled this.

Jehovah's witnesses say the human is the soul and that when a person dies, that is his end because the soul dies. They believe the soul doesn't go on living. That means if a man kills a Jehovah's witness, he has destroyed his soul. But is that what Jesus said?

Mathew 10:28

And fear not them which kill the body, but are not able to kill the soul: but rather fear him which is able to destroy both soul and body in hell.


If the soul can be killed by humans, why then did Jesus say they can't destroy the soul? The above verse shows Jesus putting a clear distinction between the body and soul. But heretic Jehovah's witnesses say the soul dies when a man dies.

Emusan:
I have shown how your. dishonesty is about those articles.

Soul can't die

What I mean by after death is...why the soul is still inside the body, the body expresses the IMAGE of the invincible soul inside after death the physical image is gone leaving the invincible image of the soul which can only be seen spiritually.

Emusan:
Your delusions are getting clearer.

So the soul is the person but what of the body
Can you see where your ignorance exposed?

Without the body can you know the person of the soul on this earth?



I can't stop laughing at you...
So Jesus POURED his soul(body) to death, how can a person be poured?

Like I said to your brother, one of the reasons why JWs rejected the personhood of the Holy Spirit is because they said Bible describes Holy Spirit as being POURED upon people. Then concluded a person cant be poured.

But here you're trying to claim now that a person was POURED to death.

The reason why the content of that scripture supported life than just ordinary BODY is because of the preceding statement POUR OUT...that's why even your NWT could use LIFE...

Emusan:
Then why did Jesus said people can kill the BODY but can't Kill the SOUL?

Let me translate that Matt 10:28 for you as your claim.

"And do not become fearful of those who kill the body but cannot kill the body; rather, fear him who can destroy both body and body in Ge·henʹna NWT Matt 10:28

This is the perfect translation for JWs...

budaatum:
Seriously? Jesus is the new Jehovah?

I kind of feel Jesus did not elevate himself above Jehovah and ask to be worshipped instead, as you're claiming, or they might have crucified him!

Emusan:
Your NWT inserted "OTHER" what the correct Bible says is 'He has been given a name that is above every name'



Same line of weak excuse...
The question you should have asked yourself is, did Jesus allow them to die believing a lie if your claim actually true? Not all of them died without knowing the truth...
But why would the same Jesus allow Russel to die believing lies?


because the last time I check
Russell was not a Jehovah witness but "herad of Christ"
Russell died believing many things that are against JWs teaching today...yet today JWs still honored him.

See this: [b]In response to the radical new direction Rutherford was taking the Watchtower Society, many left the Organization and formed independent Bible Student groups. In an effort to distance his followers from this "evil slave class," Rutherford introduced the distinguishing name Jehovah's Witnesses. This is introduced by a convention resolution, described in the
Watchtower 1931 Sep 15 page 278 and discussed in detail in the article "A New Name" Oct 1 page 291.



You don't understand it rather you always bring ridiculous excuses to justify it instead of asking yourself some thoughtful questions.

Emusan:
Hypocrite hiding under someone's post!

Reply to your first post if you dare not.

It's now you see that these church names also the same with Jehovah witness but forgotten that these people never said they witnesses for Jehovah but for Jesus.




Can you provide an evidence for this?



See lies, Jesus said His teaching is not His that's but you people only use Isaiah 43:10 to proof that you're the only person following Jehovah instruction.



Show me where Jehovah said you should witness for him, that's what have been demanding from you since.

English is not your problem even Isaiah 43:10 isn't an instruction/command.

Isaiah 40:10 "You are my witness..." compare to
Acts 1:8 "You SHALL BE my witness.."

I'm still waiting for your answer to why Herad for Christ changes to Jehovah witness if witnesses for Jesus and Jehovah are the same.

Barristter07:
Hmmm Ogbeni AlBHAGDADI

The Bolded, the Soul continue to live on. It means the individuals proceed to either heaven or hell . the individual himself didn't die , what dies is the body

The individual [soul ] called Jesus didn't die just his body ?

damosky12:
What did Jesus mean? Context will bail you out...

John 17:22-23
[22]And the glory which thou gavest me I have given them; that they may be one, even as we are one:

[23] I in them, and thou in me, that they may be made perfect in one; and that the world may know that thou hast sent me, and hast loved them, as thou hast loved me.

The context does not define the unity there as "Oneness signifies unity of purpose....". That is highly pedestrian and completely out of context.

Jesus and God had right from the beginning been One as He often asserted.

The disciples becoming one as He is ONE with God implies HIS residence in each of them (remember He us one with the father). Apparently, He spoke of God dwelling in them through the Holy Spirit. The use of THEM is clearly not collective but individual.

When Jesus said " I in them, you in me"... He didn't speak of living collectively in the disciples. He spoke of dwelling in each of them...

Besides, come to think of it, how come Jesus, a mere "servant of God", spoke of dwelling in disciples?

Jesus expressed this a number of times...

John 14:18-20
[18]I will not leave you comfortless: I will come to you.
[19]Yet a little while, and the world seeth me no more; but ye see me: because I live, ye shall live also.
[20]At that day ye shall know that I am in my Father, and ye in me, and I in you.

How come He with father is present in the disciples?

GOD and his servant both living in one person? . Not funny though.

My submission, when Jesus said " I and my father are One". He didn't mean anything asides,

"as thou, Father, art in me, and I in thee". John 17:21 They are IN EACH OTHER.

Anybody who ever went to school should know what that means...





Haba! Fear God na.

I did.

Let's make it simpler...

Jesus said in John 14:10
Believest thou not that I am in the Father (God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob) and the Father (God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob) in me? the words that I speak unto you I speak not of myself: but the Father (God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob) that dwelleth in me, he doeth the works.

Who then is Jesus if the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob lives is in Him and he (Jesus) lives in the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob?

Who is Jesus if the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob was the one responsible for both the Words He spoke and the actions He took?

Think about it and then rethink John 1:1.







Haba! Think na... "that they may be one IN US".

The reason why they are one is because they are IN US (God and Jesus are already ONE). The reason why they will be one is because they will be IN US (One).

One inside one is ONE na. You didn't need to make a case of that. Be calm.




The servant and the sender are ONE. .
The servant is IN the sender. The sender (God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob) is in the servant. They had always been in each other. Think.

John knew it. "and the Word was God" (John 1:1). Both the Word and His Owner are One.

English language.






You could be a little more cautious. I think they teach you that in church.


The God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob is one with His servant, Jesus.

They have always been in each other. They have always been inseparable.


John 17:21,23-24
[21]That they all may be one; as thou, Father, art in me, and I in thee, that they also may be one in us: that the world may believe that thou hast sent me.
[23]I in them, and thou in me, that they may be made perfect in one; and that the world may know that thou hast sent me, and hast loved them, as thou hast loved me.
[24]Father, I will that they also, whom thou hast given me, be with me where I am; that they may behold my glory, which thou hast given me: for thou lovedst me before the foundation of the world.



God came in a man, the man is Jesus.



SELAH guys. Got better things to do.

Barristter07:
cc: Jozzy4, OneJ

Here is what you called contextual exegesis




If this striked out is what you and the Jews Erroneously understand, its strictly your problem . He never said that . you Liars

John 17:22 throws light on what Jesus meant by been one . he says " I have given them the glory that you have given me, in order that they may be one JUST AS we are one "

If your flawed thinking was correct, it would mean all the disciples are also God incarnate . emphasis on " Just as " . Can you see the stupidity of that logic?

Oneness signifies unity of purpose , just as a couple becomes one . doesn't mean they are same persons , but now unified in purpose .





Humiliate yourself the more , that verse he gave should have made you eat your words if you are honest and sincere



Been called God or not is not the issue here . as shown previously Many people are called God

The KEY ISSUE is: Who is identified as the God of Abraham , Isaac and Jacob ?

Your post FAIL Woefully! To address that.





Okay, let us see




Its like you closed your eyes when reading the Red part ?

NLT says " pray that they will all be one, just as you and I are one--as you are in me, Father, and I am in you. And may they be in us so that the world will believe you sent me."

Going by your logic, He who has seen the disciples have seen the Father ? Are they not also in the Father ?



Despite you still fail to address the key question that will expose your claim on Exodus 3:14,15


Mary then automatically gives birth to God ?



No! His servant Jesus became a man.
" ... glorified his Servant Jesus" Act 3:13



Can you see your life ?

God of Abraham , Isaac and Jacob IS NOT a servant to do anyone's will



7 Gbosa for you . Big Liar .



where in Act 3:13 did it say the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob became a servant?

damosky12:
That was a CLEAR contextual exegesis... You probably couldn't read through.





LOL. He is happy. He thinks he just gave a good shot. Infantile...


You didn't need Acts 3:13 to make your point na.... Even John 3:16 speaks of God and Jesus. He calls Jesus His Son, not servant this time... Jesus spoke several times about the father. This itself implies that they are separate? Doesn't it?

Apply common sense now...


John 1:1,3,14
[1]In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.
[3]All things were made by him; and without him was not any thing made that was made.

The WORD was God (you guys contest this though). The WORD was in involved in the creation of ALL THINGS.

[14]And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us, (and we beheld his glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father,) full of grace and truth.

That same Word (which is God), for the sake of washing away the sins of man, became flesh (man)... The man it became is Jesus.

That Jesus (though being God) became man. It is the MAN he became that makes Him called a "servant", " son", "only begotten" of God. The humanity of Jesus is what Peter spoke about there in Acts 3.


Note, it is the same Jesus that said:

John 14:9
[9he that hath seen me hath seen the Father; and how sayest thou then, Shew us the Father?

How? See...

John 17:21
[21]...that they all may be one; as thou, Father, art in me, and I in thee, that they also may be one in us: that the world may believe that thou hast sent me.

What is One? How could just any servant be ONE with God? You know what ONE is?

Yet again,

John 10:30
[30]I and my Father are one.

Even the Jews (the adherents of the law themselves) got the message here...

You know what ONE is?

One is ONE. ONE can not mean Two o. It can not mean separation o. ONE is 1.


If God became flesh, that flesh could be said to be sent from God (came to fulfill HIS will), yet, that flesh is still God. That flesh is ONE with God.



The God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob came as a man. That He became man (though the man came to do His will; servant) implies that the man He became is ONE with Him. He is the man, the man is Him.

Hope you comprehend.

You have any issue with this, be specific which area and let's iron it out.

Selah.

damosky12:
You didn't even show us where you are quoting from...
Now...
Again, learn to read Bible in context...

John 10:30-33
[30] I and my Father are one.
[31]Then the Jews took up stones again to stone him.
[32]Jesus answered them, Many good works have I shewed you from my Father; for which of those works do ye stone me?
[33]The Jews answered him, saying, For a good work we stone thee not; but for blasphemy; and because that thou, being a man, makest thyself God.

See what Jesus said that sparked this particular outrage in bold. "I and God are ONE". The Jews understood this CLEARLY. His reply (to their outrage) even makes it clearer. His usage of " the Son of God" in verse 36 is clearly not the normal usage for child of God to the Jews... There was more to it. It means GOD incarnate (which will mean to be One with God). Note what He said originally, "I and the Father are ONE".

What Jesus replied with can be understood in context... " If the scriptures call mere men God, how would you say to the one who came from God because He says He us God incarnate (One with God).

So clear.

Get your thoughts in perspective.

I have answered a few questions on this already. Jesus is God. Jesus is the I AM. He us the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob in human flesh.




You are either a little immature or just naive.




Answered.

OneJ:
.

Hahahahahahaaa!!!!!

My guy ,by fire by force U wanna make Greek word "ego himi" blend with English & retain the same meaning in Hebrew.

Hayah (verb)
Definition
1) to be ,to become, come to pass

https://www.biblestudytools.com/lexicons/ hebrew/nas/hayah.html

Contrary to your faulty claims, ehyeh asher ehyeh does not encompass "I am" ,"I was" ,"I will be".

In Hebrew, "I am" never referred to the present tense & it has no place in Hebrew language.
For instance, In English, we say "I am God", we can never say it in Hebrew.
Rather,we say:. "I God".

Present tense & future tense no be the same meaning for Greek & Hebrew.

EHYEH ASHER EHYEH (is a verbal construction& not a proper noun) literally translates as " I will be who/ what I will be".

When it is written in Hebrew, the fact that it begins with 'Aleph' (the first letter of the Hebrew alphabet) , is indicative of the future tense.



"You are not yet fifty years old," the Jews said," & you have seen Abraham"!
"I tell you the truth,"Jesus answered,"before Abraham was born, I am".
At this, they picked up stones to stone him,but Jesus hid himself slipping away from the temple grounds" John 8:57,58 .

His conversation with the Jews was strictly about if Jesus was older than Abraham.
Them no talk weda God na Jesus.

See why the Jews claimed it's "blasphemy"

"We are not stoning you for any of these",replied the Jews, "but for blasphemy, because you, a mere man, claim to be God... . Jesus answered them :"why then do you accuse me of blasphemy because I SAID," I AM GOD'S SON?"


The Jews made a false allegation of blasphemy against Jesus. but Christ refuted it ( "because I said I am God's son ?" Jesus replied them).

We have heard from the horse's mouth ,so to say, "I am God's son". Not God the son.

damosky12:
First, BLASPHEMY is the Greek word, blasphēmia, which specifically means to vilify a diety. DIETY or God is involved in a statement before it can be said to be blasphemous. You can not blaspheme against Buhari for instance, same way you have not blasphemed by saying you exist before Plato...
A statement must have involved God or a god to be tagged blasphemous. Hope you get?

Secondly, you dont jump into the middle of a convo to make a point. Read the conversation over. It might help. You should have learnt "context" in school...

damosky12:
Kai! You like dogmatic argument. EVEN your definition contradicts your stance. Note the bolded; TO BE. TO BE is quite different from "to become" in that it deals with the PRESENT state of the subject. TO BE refers to the beingness of a being.

Now if hayah is the same word that is translated TO BE and TO BECOME, is it not logical enough that it refers to the BEINGNESS of God?
I BE who I BE, I will become who I will become, etc, is logically all summed up in I AM THAT I AM. It is clearly the same thing.






A well researched Wikipedia quote might do you some good...

"’Ehyeh is the first person form of hayah , "to be", and owing to the peculiarities of Hebrew grammar means both "I am", "I was", and "I will be" . Source: https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/I_Am_that_I_Am .

The whole article might help you too.




"they picked up stones to stone him" (John 8:58)


They picked up stones to stone an obviously young man because He said he is older than Abraham?

There CLEARLY isn't anything blasphemous about claiming to exist before Abraham.


If at all that were blasphemous, they would have attempted stoning him earlier right when he said: "your father Abraham rejoiced to see my day: and he saw it, and was glad" (John 8:56). Don't you think this is more blasphemous than just saying he is older than Abraham?

Give it a thought, the man must have said something more unconventional to have attracted that outrage.... His language is quite clear in the Greek, "Before Abraham, I AM". He could have said: " before Abraham, I was" or "before Abraham, I have been...". But he didn't. Hence, the perceived blasphemy from His audience...

Give this some thought. Its quite lucid.

damosky12:
You and Barristter07 are getting it wrong. You, specifically, are just being uncritical. Ego in the Greek means " I". "himi" is defined by the strong concordance as First person singular PRESENT INDICATIVE . Besides, do a little research, himi was used 146 times in the Bible, 136 of those times, it is used for AM (Present tense).

Why would Jesus have chosen that particular word? Besides, if all he said is "I exist before Abraham", what is blasphemous about that so much so that his Audience attempted to kill Him?

Don't you think he must have said something blasphemous? Don't you think He must have said he is that I AM that existed before Abraham?

For a parting, king James translators couldn't have been grammatically inefficient to have chosen I AM if the conventional " I was" is what us used. It is actually clear in the Greek words used.






The tenses of the Hebrew portion of the Bible (the old testament) is easily interpreted based on context.

See this: Ehyeh is the first person form of hayah , "to be". Hence, in Hebrew language, it means all of " I am, I was, I will be". Its about the BEINGNESS of the speaker.

Hence, I AM is just the apt translation. We really have no business trying to twist this up.



Asides this, think for a while... Why would Jesus' Audience have attempted to kill Him when He said "before Abraham was, I AM".

Would the Jewish audience want to kill a man for merely saying he existed before Abraham? Wouldn't that rather provoke them to mock him than to kill him? A man in his 30s saying he is older than Abraham would never have provoked an attempt to kill him... He must have said he is the I AM (just as the KJV aptly interpreted).


John 8:58-59
[58]Jesus said unto them, Verily, verily, I say unto you, Before Abraham was, I am.
[59]. Then took they up stones to cast at him: but Jesus hid himself, and went out of the temple...


How plausible would it be to say they attempted to kill Jesus because he claims he is older than Abraham

To get things in perspective, the Jewish audience we read about would only want to kill a man for the sole reason of blasphemy or equating Himself with God (John 10:33).


It would be faulty to think Jesus merely said " he was existing before Abraham " and then to warranted such hostility. We know that doesn't add up.

The KJV got it right. He is the I AM.

alBHAGDADI:
Mathew 20:28 doesn't say SOUL. It says LIFE. No version uses soul.

The body and soul make up the person. When the person dies, the soul leaves, it goes to paradise for those who believe in Jesus, but to hell fire for those who don't. But during the resurrection, the soul comes back into the body and is resurrected. That's when both are burnt and destroyed according to Jesus.

If the soul doesn't go on after death, then Jesus promise below to the thief would be a lie.

Luke 23:43
And Jesus said unto him, Verily I say unto thee, Today shalt thou be with me in paradise.

But I know that JW have a different version of that verse in their NWT bible. They shifted the coma to be before TODAY. How come no other version of the Bible did that?

You guys wrote your own book to suit your point of view.

Barristter07:

Run from wetin ?

Do you saw where the writer quote this below

," or in the NWT,"... and apart from him not even one thing came into existence" (emphasis mine)."

Apart from Jesus ( because he was Created directly by his Father ) , isn't that clear enough?

alBHAGDADI:
[s] Exactly why I asked earlier that "why do you JW say man seizes to exist when he dies?". Here you are admiting that the soul never dies. So where does it go after the body dies? We know Jesus went to hell, which you guys don't believe in. So, where did his immortal soul go after death? [/s]

alBHAGDADI:
Read below.

The Scripture teaches that death is not the end of existence. The Bible says that the spirit, or soul, of humans will exist forever. This brings up the issue of immortality. If human beings are going to live forever, does this mean they are immortal? If humans are immortal, then in what sense do they have immortality?

God Alone

Immortality means not subject to death. The Bible says God alone has immortality.

Who alone has immortality, dwelling in unapproachable light, whom no person has seen or can see ( 1 Timothy 6:16 )

In this passage we see that immortality is something that is part and parcel with the nature of God. He alone has it. The Scripture teaches that only God has life in Himself.
For as the Father has life in Himself, so He has granted the Son to have life in Himself ( John 5:26 ).
Only God is deathless in His essence. He alone is immortal in this sense of the term.

Imparted By God

Yet the Bible says that immortality is something that God imparts to believers. The Old Testament taught that immortality would result by living righteously before God.
In the way of righteousness there is life; along that path is immortality ( Proverbs 12:28 ).

New Testament Teaching

The New Testament also says that God grants immortality to humans who trust in Him.

So when this corruptible has but on incorruption, and this mortal has put on immortality, then shall be brought to pass the saying that is written: 'Death is swallowed up in victory' ( 1 Corinthians 15:53 ,54).

From this passage we discover three things about immortality.

1. Immortality is given only to believers, there is no mention of unbelievers receiving it. Therefore it is more than endless existence.
2. It is a gift from God that believers will receive in the future at Christ's coming.
3. Immortality refers not only to the soul or spirit, but the body is also included. Believers become immortal when this mortal body puts on an immortal one.

Brought By Christ
God the Son, Jesus Christ, brought immortality to the believer.
but it has now been revealed through the appearing of our Savior, Christ Jesus, who has destroyed death and has brought life and immortality to light through the gospel ( 2 Timothy 1:10 ).

Not Immortal By Nature

Therefore, according to the Bible, humanity is not immortal by nature. The human soul, or spirit, survives death, but the body does not. Immortality is achieved when the body of the believer is raised and transformed and then united with the soul.

Immortal Inheritance

Christians have an immortal inheritance awaiting them.
Blessed be the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ! By His great mercy He has given us a new birth into a living hope through the resurrection of Jesus Christ from the dead, and into an inheritance that is imperishable, undefiled, and unfading, kept in heaven for you ( 1 Peter 1:3 ,4 ).

Barristter07:
Comprehension oooo!!!

A quote was given and I asked , do you agree with it ?

alBHAGDADI:
WHat's wrong with this one?

He said I believe Jesus Immortal, to which I agreed. He proceed to ask if an Immortal being can die for my sins, I simply answered by showing him that he came in the flesh for that purpose. He didn't come as an immortal, otherwise he won't have been able to die.

I now find it funny how you believe I'm confused. Perhaps, it's something else you folks are discussing which is quite different.

achorladey:
Did you answer mine? After showing you how those pertinent questions applies to your own organisation you adhered to, did you respond? The post are not far off go and check?

Someone has asked again whose congregation is Jesus head over? Is it the congregation that its founder want to be seen as CHRISTIANS or the one that the person succeeding the founder want to be known as JEHOVAH'S WITNESSES that appeared late in the 19th century and that kept evolving into the early 20th century that even its founder will not readily identify or which one?

You backed TATIME that JESUS makes mistake in the Flesh too?

As regards the congregation christ is head over. I have answered that repeatedly

Your case of course can never be the one to be pitied.

TATIME:
Jesus actually made MISTAKES(in the flesh)! Take it or leave it. It is there in your Bible and i've point it out to you, anybody who is sincere can read it in black and white. The only difference is that the PERFECT man quickly correct His errors unlike imperfect man that often fails to realise it unless someone more cautious point it out to you! So i'm still maintaining that,go and call all your Pastors to come and explain why Jesus told His father to turn around the cup that has been predestined for Him when He(Jesus) is the Word of God Himself meaning all that had been written must have passed through His office before any mortal man could be inspired,know,write or read it.Why He made those who came to arrest Him fall to the ground with a powerful utterance when he supposed to be arrested EASILY and why He was asking if His father has forsaken Him whereas God has never forsaken any of His loyal servants more or less HIS only begotten son! So stop parading that one because it is written in the Bible and if you're calling your crowds to investigate it and give me answers, i'm waiting! But it's only "a good for nothing idiot" that would keep saying "this group is not the one we should associate with as Christians" but cannot point to a better group yet ever arguing against a well established group of great achievements! Sorry my friend i'm not the type that swallows my words if Jesus is standing right here now i'll ask Him "Sir has your father ever abandoned any of HIS loyal ones?" That is how true Christians asked Him questions to know why He uttered such and not just going about like you without been able to stand and say "this is right or this is wrong". You can claim that a religious group is wrong OK which one is right? NO answer! Abeg park one side you're and you still remains a GOOD FOR NOTHING IDIOT!

that one is very confused , His leaders in apostasy from whose table he feeds hasn't readily identify the congregation that Jesus heads to him, so don't be surprised if he. Didn't answer , Many of his teachers are atheists and agnostics. People who
dont even believe the Bible anymore . So his case is one to be pitied .

He was running mouth on following Jesus , yet could not identify the same congregation Jesus heads over . Can you see how he failed to answer pertinent questions relating to the John 14:6 he himself quotes ? Don't take him serious, he is finally ending up to be like his teachers .

alBHAGDADI:
I don't understand you

Lol its clear you don't even believe Jesus died for your sins



Jesus is an immortal soul when he was on earth , how can an immortal person die for your sins ?

alBHAGDADI:
Yes, you don't believe in John 3:16 because you only pay it lip service.

How can you say you believe in it then turn around and say someone can't be saved unless he belongs to an organization? Is that what the Bible states below about how I can be saved?

John 3:16
For God so loved the world, that he gave his only begotten Son, that whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have everlasting life.


The Bible has never said believe in Jesus Christ and belong to an organization for one to be saved. It simply says BELIEVE.

Barristter07:
Properly addesss all the areas you called bias .

Way
Did Jesus need to die before Abels immortal soul make heaven ? ( You are so ignorant to tell me to ask, when the facts show they dont, Anyone can say Yes with their mouths not knowing they don't even believe what they admit to ) ( Respond to this critical area )


Life : Can Jesus ressurect people who are presently alive in heaven ?

[Truth, listening to Jesus voice] How can they preach Gods kingdom Jesus asked to preach if they dont understand it ? Who are thoze preaching the kingdom today as prophesied in Mtt 24:14 ?

Primesky:
See, let me tell you, i'm not here on this forum by my strength or power. So, if you think this your stunt will shake me, you're wasting your time. I will continue to defend the truth, and expose the false teaching.

If you like accept it, if you like make fun of it. Lies can never trump truth, never!.