Scholar8200's Posts
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Question should be: 1. How many of them (even Evangelicals) read their Bibles? Who would be surprised, after all the decline of Bible influence is not natural but due to deliberate and frantic effort by Govt. etc to obliterate anything Christian from their country! If we abide by the principles taught in the Bible, our country will go on prospering and to prosper; but if we and our posterity neglect its instruction and authority, no man can tell how sudden a catastrophe may overwhelm us and bury all our glory in profound obscurity. Daniel Webster Read More http://www.cancertutor.com/quotes_presidents/ |
Empiree:The fact of the Word being made flesh for the purpose of redemption is the reason we have the Gospels! Claiming that it is an innovation or it's used for 'hide and seek' sounds very strange! Point #1: Now look at the first underlined, you said he was born. He in the sentence refers to Jesus, correct?. So Jesus was born. But earlier, remember you said God has no beginning, no ending and the Bible says nothing looks like him. But Jesus looks like us.Yes, He had to put on Humanity but He had always been with the Father! David called Him My Lord; John said He was before him(already explained); Himself said He was before Abraham. Your reaction to this suggests you might have supported those who wanted to stone Him when He said so. Point #2: Bolded part says "I came down from heaven" which could also mean he was born. We all (including empire and scholar) came down from heaven in that sense. So he came down for ministry not of his(Jesus) own accord but (read the last clause) on behalf of the One (God) who sent him(Jesus). Can you see two different personalities in this passage of the Bible?. The verse is very clear that Jesus is a messenger. I know you gonna bring about "he was in flesh". Honestly, that's a theory innovated - that has absolutely nothing significant. I am doing breakdown for you sir.Is there ANY prophet that used that statement as a metaphor? NO! Taking it literally corresponds with the other passages about Him as One Who had been with the Father! Would you have joined the council in condemning Him when He told them they would see Him at the Right Hand of the Father? Point #3 Look at this verse of the Bible 'I' i:e Jesus came from the Father. The same 'I' appears in the second sentence I leave the world, and go to the Father. "Father in this sentence is God indicating another personality. Two different people. Which indicates that he was sent by God to Children of Israel to deliver message like other prophets and messengers before him. And then he(Jesus) went back to Him(Allah), just like other prophets. Are you getting it, sit?which other prophet made use of similar statements? Taking it literally agrees with other NT and OT passages about Him. Assuming that it is metaphorical puts it at variance with many passages of scripture! Point #4: Here Jesus is called son of David. He is also called Son of God. I am sure he is also called son of other men in the Bible like Jesus son of Josef. This i have said earlier that "son" is metaphorically used in the Bible. Empire and scholar are also sons of God because we are debating intelligently and for others to learn few tings as well. A thief who reforms himself is also son of God. A good Samaritan is also son of God. Remember in primary school, when we make noise in class, our teachers used to tell us to be quiet and they would say son of God dont make noise. Son of the devil do. This brings a critical question actually. If Jesus is Son of God (whatever that means to you), how then he is also the Father at the same time?.Not when the qualifier-Only Begotten- is used! It seems you assume everything to be metaphorical! If I may ask, on what authority? What similar passages agree with that claim? Point #5: You called Jesus(p) a messiah @ underlined. What is messiah by definition?. The Bible verse you quoted indicating holy spirit does not in anyway proof Jesus's Divinity. Do you not have pastor who also claim they are in spirit (when they are doing their thing)?. Does that make them Divine?to be in the spirit means they are Inspired. That means David said what he said by Inspiration ,Psalm 110:1 Yahweh said to L'Adonis both referring to different Personalities by he that firmly believed GOD is One! Point #6: It is not clear by my breakdown now that Jesus the son of Mary, the messenger of God - (SENT) by God is God's creature?. I tried hard to break it down fo r you mister.Even Elizabeth referred to Mary as the mother of my Lord when He was still 3 months! Zechariah (John's father) called Him Daystar from on High! Read Luke 1! Point #8: All God's prophets and messengers (including Jesus) believed in One God WITHOUT partner(s). The confusion lies with translators and writers of the Bible. For as long as you believe in the Bible, you will NEVER, ever be able to correctly figure out identity of Jesus. Bible clearly differentiate him from God. In other part it mixes them up which suggest CORRUPTION, DISTORTION, OMITTION and ADDITION of the Bible. Open your eyes. We talk about different Bible writers earlier in this thread, about unknown people from unknown places at unknown places. If this doesnt awake your heart i dont know what else will.. Mystery about God is, we do not know His beginning and He does not have ending. And other non- human Attributes of His. That's it. No human incarnation with God, no trinity etc.The OT and the NT says contrary. The above is your opinion. But why would God waith milleniums till 500-600 AD? Point #9: I dont think this is hard though. I am glad you understand the royal We unlike your fellow Christians who stubbornly distort it essence. Now let's break this down. Also I heard the voice of the Lord, saying, Whom shall I send, and who will go for us? Then said I, Here am I; send me. Isaiah 6:8The Lord (not Isaiah)said,''Whom shall I send! He further said ''Who will go for Us'' It appears you overlooked the 'I' in that part spoken by the Lord! Anything confusing you here?. "Us" in the verse denotes God. Royal Us.The idea of royal us is not in the Bible! Now, Jesus is Messiah here?. What is Messiah?This is always spoken by muslims as a way of desiring the Bible be re-written to agree with the Quran, no wonder many fell and are still falling for the sham 'gospel of Barnabas'. The Lord preserved His Word and that is what we have today. Has any one making these claims been able to provide a manuscript that seem to agree with what you have in the Quran? NO! What is the implication of claiming God could not preserve His Word? Do you not realise that it is a blasphemous claim? (which is unfortunately lost by 80 percent anyways). When i was reading Mat 22:42-44, the case letter for son and lord are lower cases. Also mixed with upper cases. This is clear deception and manipulation. In my opinion, if they are to ever re-write Bible, not only will they need to work on proper translation but also punctuations and cases. Your Book is very confusing. Thats why there are different doctrines in Christendom.Prove the highlighted factually! The translators were faithful to the context and an unbiased consideration of the statements and contexts vis a vis other similar passages makes the focus clear to us. However, this is not by accident by the way. The reason you are all confused and having different doctrines is bcus you reject Faith(Truth). As a result of that, God sealed your heart. Read what Quran says to this effect. SUrah Maidah (5:14)So you mean God did not preserve His Word but will accuse them of neglecting some parts (which He did not preserve) and even promise judgement and will cause hatred among His people!?! This is defamation of character!!! First all, nothing wrong with flesh biologically. It is God who created it. God is Good. It depends on how we use ourselves. But to declare that "flesh" is inherently evil is vile. However, maybe I should ask you if what you meant by "flesh" here is different?.Just the normal flesh and blood. Well, if you are referring to creation of Jesus @ underlined, yes, the Creative Power of Allah "Be! and he (Jesus came into being) and it is" brought Jesus into being. In that case, Jesus became a man born of woman. So yes, in that case Gnostics are incorrect. But while you are correct that Word became flesh, using that term, to you the Word that became flesh is God which is tantamount to falsehood. Allah was not present physically with Mary. It was Angel Gabriel, through him, Allah breathed into Maryam(as) of His(Allah) spirit.is Gabriel the custodian of Allah's spirit? Did you not say that Ruh al-Qudus is the spirit that proceed from Allah? Who is greater Gabriel or the Mysterious spirit that proceeds from Allah? Is there a legitimate body that oversees translations of the Bible?. For instance, in Islam, almost in every Muslim country, one can not just print Quran without going through extensive scrutiny. You can go to jail if you translate and print nonsense. Why dont they have the same institution in Christianity so that every Tom, Dick and Harry dont translate and print garbage?. Another Bible is about to be published, "Kanye Gospel". Perhaps this Bible will be Hip Hop friendly like Skate, Kiddie, Gay and Women's Gospels. The list goes on.God preserved His Word and the KJV agrees with the preserved manuscripts! Yes, it is always about the flesh. You use flesh when it sooths youyour opinion. The 4 Gospels capture the Christ after He was made flesh. . Allow me to do quick case experiment. SInce you believe God, Jesus and holy Ghost are one (3-1), it means all three are not detachable, correct?. Implications are quiet profound. That means,Now a 21st century man will disclaim a Fact that has been there for milleniums simply because he cannot grasp it! As though God dealt with none till 500-600 AD!!! Read this verse of Quran again.first you claim it was corrupted; next it was neglected; again you claim we have forgotten, then you were asked to seek clarifications from the people of the Book Where do you stand?!but all these do not move us! Covenant mentioned in the verse is the believe in and worship of One God which the verse further said you have forgotten. There is nowhere to my knowledge where Jesus acknowledged being God and flesh. This is forgery penned down by men after this mighty messenger of Allah had ascended. Enough saidThere is no covenant but thaty ratified by Blood! |
This has its source from the brain behind the 'gospel'of Barnabas! First it was that Semiramis wanted to remain popular hence claiming that the late Nimrod's son, Tammuz was the Seed of the Woman Genesis 3:15 that would crush the head of the serpent. There was no reference to Trinity then because they did not have that revelation! The only one they had was Gen 3:15 and that was the one she prostituted! That is why all that Semiramis could claim was not a Triune arrangement but Genesis 3:15! These ones were recent restatements of historical beliefs thus making it appear as though it had been there all along! This Genesis 3:15 was commonly known to all the then world and likewise the lies of Semiramis came before the great dispersion in Genesis 11 hence it seems each nationality has their own version of Semiramis' lies and they edited same accordingly! Fast forward to the AD/CE period, in their usual editing/re-editing of their lies in accordance to what has been done, they suddenly refer to Nimrod (which they could not do since the Nature of the True God was not yet known clearly) in order to have their own version! Since op only copied and paste, he may not understand. https://www.nairaland.com/2375418/horus-not-jesus-christ-never |
facheux:ok |
facheux:Internal and external agreement. A History of Preservation There is a big difference between God's preserved words and man's perverted words. And keep in mind that two things had to be preserved through the centuries: the accurate text of God's words, and the correct translation of those words. Old Testament God preserved the words of the Old Testament by the Levitical priests, who faithfully copied them through the centuries. The best manuscript, used by the King James Bible, was the Ben Chayyim, also called the "Bomberg Text." This faithful Rabbinic Old Testament, used for the King James Bible, was rejected by the NKJV committee in favor of a Vatican-published text. But it still takes a careful eye (and a parallel Bible) to spot the differences. New Testament God preserved the words of the New Testament by His faithful Christian disciples, from Antioch of Syria (Acts 11:26) to the Vaudois people of the French Alps about AD 120. From the 150s on they passed this Old Latin Bible (called "Common Bible" or "Vulgate" throughout Europe and the British Isles. The Vaudois people were regarded by the Protestants and Baptists as "pre-Reformers," passing down the gospel message till the Reformation of the 1500s. Their Bibles and others translated from them, were so accurate they were included in translating the King James Bible.www.chick.com (remember that these Vaudois people were the same that would rather die than change a word in the said NT. |
facheux:Internal and external agreement. A History of Preservation There is a big difference between God's preserved words and man's perverted words. And keep in mind that two things had to be preserved through the centuries: the accurate text of God's words, and the correct translation of those words. Old Testament God preserved the words of the Old Testament by the Levitical priests, who faithfully copied them through the centuries. The best manuscript, used by the King James Bible, was the Ben Chayyim, also called the "Bomberg Text." This faithful Rabbinic Old Testament, used for the King James Bible, was rejected by the NKJV committee in favor of a Vatican-published text. But it still takes a careful eye (and a parallel Bible) to spot the differences. New Testament God preserved the words of the New Testament by His faithful Christian disciples, from Antioch of Syria (Acts 11:26) to the Vaudois people of the French Alps about AD 120. From the 150s on they passed this Old Latin Bible (called "Common Bible" or "Vulgate" throughout Europe and the British Isles. The Vaudois people were regarded by the Protestants and Baptists as "pre-Reformers," passing down the gospel message till the Reformation of the 1500s. Their Bibles and others translated from them, were so accurate they were included in translating the King James Bible.www.chick.com |
Go for the Authorised version. |
acooriz:Paul's context was the bema/judgement seat of Christ concerned with reward for works rendered for Christ on earth not purging from sin. |
gemale:For the invisible things of him from the creation of the world are clearly seen, being understood by the things that are made, even his eternal power and Godhead; so that they are without excuse: Romans 1:20 |
Ioannes:Philipians 2:13 sets it in perspective: For it is God which worketh in you both to will and to do of his good pleasure. God works in us through our faith and we express the same by cooperating with Him! That is why It is written: 13 For if ye live after the flesh, ye shall die: but if ye through the Spirit do mortify the deeds of the body, ye shall live. Romans 8:13 Summarily, the works are described thus: 3 remembering without ceasing your work of faith, and labour of love, and patience of hope in our Lord Jesus Christ, in the sight of God and our Father; 1Thess 1:3 That is why those good works are called the fruit of the Spirit The absence of these works means the absence of saving faith! |
seemples:The allegation is that 1 John 5:7 is not in some early Manuscripts hence was a later addition. |
alienvirus:Kindly visit these threads and have a rethink: https://www.nairaland.com/2935365/mark-16-9-20-debate-rests and https://www.nairaland.com/2912069/gospel-barnabas-laid-rest The first link will show you that the Bible has been since around 120 AD and that one was complete! The second link will show you the lie called 'gospel' according to Barnabas that contradicts both Christianity and Islam.It was obviously meant to favour Islam but unfortunately the writer failed to edit it properly! |
Empiree:Refer to the recent clarification on the fact of the Pre-existence of Christ before He was made flesh! Refer to the explanations above. The Nature of God is also a mystery, but this much has been revealed. Meaning there is no part of the Quran that actually/expressedly verifies that hadith?Alright on what basis was that hadith validated? Sch8200:By what means is the highlighted measured? Does that not mean anyone can fabricate something carefully ensuring that it meets that specification? Empire.e:The Answer: GOD. Sch8200:None was described as being with God from the beginning! None was called only Begotten (as the Greek and Aramaic agree). There is a difference between those sons and The Son! Quran condemns this;Well, I stand with the Bible! All these you quoted came up only around 500-600 AD/CE! What then? Sch8200Where was Isaiah called son? I said Isaiah also called the SON(The Pre-Incarnated Christ) the Mighty God! I asked: " Who was governing the rest of the planet at that point the flesh suffered limitations?"When Christianity says: God is 3 in 1 and that's the mystery of the Divine Nature. Agreed to since the time of the OT (BCE period). And Muslims say: God's nature is clear enough but turn around to say the Spirit of God is a mystery which they cannot fully explain! what then? If you can easily set forth the Divine nature how come the Spirit proceeding from God becomes a Mystery so difficult to understand? God is not a mystery but the Spirit that proceeds from Him is ![]() Furthermore, how does Ruh al-Qudus apply to two personalities there being no variations that help in identifying who/Who is intended? Sch8200It can never be! The Comforter was to witness alongside the Disciples not after! Besides, there is an embarrasingly stark difference between The witness of the disciples and that of Mohammed! Sch8200Jesus said the Spirit will: 14 He shall glorify me: for he shall receive of mine, and shall shew it unto you. 15 All things that the Father hath are mine: therefore said I, that he shall take of mine, and shall shew it unto you. John16:14,15 Sch8200:Ezekiel made the prophecy in Ezekiel 36:27, of the Spirit dwelling in the believers. 27 And I will put my spirit within you, and cause you to walk in my statutes, and ye shall keep my judgments, and do them. This was to be fulfilled after Christ! The Spirit could never be a man! THe audience were quite familiar with people having the Spirit upon them! Sch8200:Before I answer, kindly answer my questions on purgatory and Jesus being there as was claimed! Jesus Appears to the DisciplesSince you want to use the Bible, see this: 25 The other disciples therefore said unto him, We have seen the Lord. But he said unto them, [size=14pt]Except I shall see in his hands the print of the nails, and put my finger into the print of the nails, and thrust my hand into his side,[/b[/size]] I will not believe. 26 And after eight days again his disciples were within, and Thomas with them: [b][b]then came Jesus[/b], the doors being shut, and stood in the midst, and said, Peace be unto you. 27 [b][b]Then saith he to Thomas, Reach hither thy finger, and behold my hands; and reach hither thy hand, and thrust it into my side: and be not faithless, but believing [/b][/b]John 20:25-27 The print of the crucifixion nails and the lacerations of the spear in His side were there for Thomas to see! He was crucified! 36 While they were still talking about this, Jesus himself stood among them and said to them, “Peace be with you.”Spoken not in arabic and has being a way of greeting long before this time! 37 They were startled and frightened, thinking they saw a ghost.He rose from the dead! |
Empiree:Before He was born, He had been existing with the Father. That is why it is written, The Word was made flesh! The is becoming a case of "sumu bukum umuyun fahum laa yari jiun". i:e deaf, dump and blind, they will not return to the straight Path Q 2:18Who did the Bible refer to there? The People who did not recognise His being the Messiah! Jesus never said this to Peter when the latter declared by Inspiration,"Thou art the Christ, The Son of the Living God"! Why? It Agrees with Scripture just like Jesus said in MAtthew 22:42-44 Sch8200:For I came down from heaven, not to do mine own will, but the will of him that sent me. John 6:38 Here in one sentence, He reveals both His Pre-existence and His Incarnation!Ditto this: 28[b] I came forth from the Father, and am come into the world: again, I leave the world, and go to the Father[/b]. 29 His disciples said unto him, Lo, now speakest thou plainly, and speakest no proverb. John 16:28,29 Sch8200"The Lord said to my lord, "Sit at my right hand, until I put your enemies under your feet"'?[/quote]Matthew 22:44 was Jesus revealing that that verse spoke about the Messiah: Jesus further establishing my point that Jesus had been there all along before He became flesh else how did David see Him?! 42 saying, What think ye of [size=14pt]Christ[/size]? whose son is he? They say unto him, The Son of David. 43 He saith unto them, [size=14pt]How then doth David in spirit call him Lord[/size], saying, 44 The Lord said unto my Lord, Sit thou on my right hand, till I make thine enemies thy footstool? 4 Matthew 22:42-44 This, I believe is a compelling proof of John 1:1 and the Divinity of Christ! We have a case like this in Quran as well:Consider the context of Matthew22:44 and see that there is a difference! It is like this; when i was a boy and i would do something silly, my mommy would rebuff me and said these words:David here describes a conversation between Two Divine Personalities, not God and man. Now, the verse you quoted above as reference, according to you there are multiple Lords including David, if David(p) was also in spirit as Bible writers want us to believe, why is he not also God?. I hope I am making sense to you?. I really can not help you further with this. It is no mystery at all. The Bible translators and writers misused upper and lower cases a lot....inappropriately.I believe Jesus' quoting that verse in reference to the Messiah should clear your doubts here. Being in spirit is used to refer to being under the Inspirational influence of the HOLY SPIRIT (not ANY angel)! Consider this: 10 I was in the Spirit on the Lord’s day, and heard behind me a great voice, as of a trumpet, Revelations 1:10 Got it? Once again remember that these were people whose rallying cry was:Also refer to the Psalm 110:1/Matthew 22:44 explanation above. Jesus made it clear. Sch8200:Well you are the one that invited Philo here. Quran says God Allah is above heavensAs long as you believe Jesus was God's creature, we will never agree here! And why would Isaiah (a real Israelite who you just quoted write thus by Inspiration: For unto us a child is born, unto us a son is given: and the government shall be upon his shoulder: and his name shall be called Wonderful, Counsellor, The mighty God, The everlasting Father, The Prince of Peace. Isaiah 9:6 I maintain, they believed and still believe GOD is One but they also realised that His Nature is a Mystery! Furthermore, the royal 'We' referred to by Muslims in the Quran is not used in the Bible. You find passages like this also by Isaiah: Also I heard the voice of the Lord, saying, Whom shall I send, and who will go for us? Then said I, Here am I; send me. Isaiah 6:8 The Lord here is the same as the second in Psalm 110:1 - the Pre-Incarnated Son! do a hebrew study on both! Sch8200:That's because you want to hold to your opinion. Fine! Sch8200:The highlighted has been clarified. Besides, do you mean you agree in the intrinsically evil nature of the flesh and all material things as the Gnostics do? This is why the same John, having these Grecio/Gnostic corrupters in mind said:That John was actually warning against the contaminatory efforts of the Gnostics who believe the Word never became flesh because to them, the flesh is intrinsically evil! Now this further shows that John simply recovered the Facts and Understanding stolen as it were by the Gnostic Greeks! Sch8200:That's why we Christians denounce some versions. Now go compare the Greek here:http://biblehub.com/interlinear/john/1-18.htm and Aramaic here http://biblehub.com/aramaic-english-gospels/john/1.htm. The translations using Son sought to be faithful to the context; the transliterations were what they were! "And the Father who sent me has himself testified concerning me. You have never heard his voice nor seen his form," - John 5:37SPoken after the Word was made flesh! |
CoolUsername:No it isnt! Why do you say this? |
Promisechuks, was Paul being legalistic when he made this declaration concerning a fornicator in Church: 5 to deliver such an one unto Satan for the destruction of the flesh, that the spirit may be saved in the day of the Lord Jesus. 13 But them that are without God judgeth. Therefore put away from among yourselves that wicked person. 1 Corinth 5:5,13 Bro Promise would have said," Paul!!! Dont be sin conscious! All that man's sins for past,present and future are forgiven!" IS THAT RIGHT? ANd, "Paul!!! Dont judge!!! his salvation is still intact he has been perfected by Christ!!! Is THAt Right? Yes Redemption Is Perfect and Permanent!!! But since we enter only by FAITH, are our FAITHS perfect and permanent?! Why are we commanded to Hold fast, watch? Pls help me ask that Other Joseph Prince's disciple whose threads would not accept healthy, scriptural questions! Why was Paul continually referring to deception when he had to outline sins and warning that they which did such had no place in the Kingdom?! |
Sch8200Refer to the explanations above. The Nature of God is also a mystery, but this much has been revealed. Sch8200:Meaning there is no part of the Quran that actually/expressedly verifies that hadith? Nutshell, a Muslim who observes obligatory duties to the best of his ability and do good deeds as much as he can, even if he has minor misdeeds or even bad deeds, prophet Muhammad(p) will still intercede for him/her. If the prophet(p) intercedes for any muslim, it is incumbent on Allah to accept his intercession. He(p) intercedes for a muslim knowing fully well he/she already met requirements. This is my little way i can explain the hadith. I know there are better explanation of it. The intercession of the Prophet is nothing more than Honor that Allah (swt) has given him. He is granted right of intercession as reported in Hadith no: 331:Now is it allowed that a hadith validates another hadith? Especially when the former might not (subject to your answer to penultimate question)have been expressedly validated in the Quran? Okay. As regards the highlighted, that was said after the Word became flesh and assumed the form of a Servant.Oh Christians too can: GOD! There is NO repentance after death! It's a Divine principle.To deny the Divinity of the Son is to deny everything about the Work of Redemption! How then is such an one a Christian? It is a mystery revealed to an extent. But we cannot force our intellect to complete the parts not revealed in understanding. That will be heretical. When the Father said (referring to the Son): But unto the Son he saith, Thy throne, O God, is for ever and ever: a sceptre of righteousness is the sceptre of thy kingdom. Hebrews 1:8 Isaiah also called the Son the Mighty God! Isaiah was also an Israelite who cried, Hear O Israel, the Lord thy God is One Lord! Do I have perfect understanding thereof? No. Do I believe it? Yes, God said it! Sch8200:The Father is, was and ever shall be! Sch8200:GOD of course! The Omnipotent,Omniscient and Omnipresent! Yes Jesus even said, " The FAther that dwelleth in Me, He does the Works" and furthermore Jesus said," if I cast out devils by the Spirit of God" John 14:10, Matthew 12:28. This underscores His Omnipresence and that this Divine attribute was unaffected when the Word became flesh! Sch8200:And was Mohammed's witness in agreement with that of Jesus' disciples! If the Criteria for the mortal men here was that they had ben with Him from the commencement of His earthly ministry, does Muhammed, another mortal, qualify on this ground? If the only way Jesus would be glorified was to be by writing, then the Spanish author of the failed 'gospel of barnabas' could also make similar claims on ground of his book! Emp:this matter has been overworked. John prophesied of the baptism with the Spirit; Jesus confirmed that too after His resurrection! These are sure: 1. In the OT and the Gospels before John 14&15, there were many mention of the Spirit, Holy Spirit and His acts etc this neither referred to a man or angel what suddenly changed in the 6th AD/CE? Jesus plainly said,"...the Spirit of Truth which proceeds from the Father" John 15:26 meaning He is the Ruh al-Qudus that Islam finds a Mystery! Note the verb there it is not future tense but a present tense meaning He has always been coming but only this time He will come in My Name and will not only be upon you but will dwell IN you just as promised: 27 And I will put my spirit within you, and cause you to walk in my statutes, and ye shall keep my judgments, and do them. Ezekiel 36:27 Note that this was a promise for the future! Keep it simple. Are those Christians who do not believe Jesus is God, who do not believe in trinity any less Christians?. Are they going to hell?. Those people do not consider themselves antichrist. I have them in my friends cycle. they are not occult. They firmly believe Bible support their doctrines.Refer to my answer to a similar question up there. Sch8200:Consider the highlighted! Sch8200:If this be true then Jesus was actually crucified and He died!!! Then, His resurrection is likewise true!!! Else, He is not there meaning the claim that all mankind goes there is Wrong! Otherwise, He is not ordinary Man hence though HE came as a Man, He still did not go there because He was also beyond Man! By implication, the record and account in the Bible is right ab initio! Any objections? Sch8200:But the distinctness of the Personalities has been established?! |
Empiree:GOD as we know Him! Yes, i knew it is all about John. This begs the question of plagiarism actually. This prologue is intended to identify Jesus as the eternal Word (Logos) of God. Thus John asserts Jesus' innate superiority over all divine messengers, whether angels or prophets. Here John adapts the doctrine of the Logos, God's creative principle, from Philo, a 1st-century Hellenized Jew. Philo had adopted the term Logos from Greek philosophy, using it in place of the Hebrew concept of Wisdom (sophia) as the intermediary (angel) between the transcendent Creator and the material world. Some scholars argue that the prologue was taken over from an existing hymn and added at a later stage in the gospel's composition.http://debatingchristianity.com/forum/viewtopic.php?t=15617 Could this be pla....? The concept of One being with the Father from the beginning was obviously taken by Heriaclitus around 6BC (not even Philo) and defaced to reflect Gnostics' belief of there being many intermediaries between God and the material world and Gnostics further claim that Logos was the highest of all the intermediaries! This is an obvious theft of Inspiration/Intellectual material from the Hebrews by the Greeks, and prostituting same to reflect one's belief (A skill much used by Gnostics and attempted by the learner who forged the 'gospel of Barnabas' trying to steal the Gospel and weave Islam into it but he failed woefully!) Now let's see the belief in the Father and Son as shown in the OT Remember that all these were written milleniums before Heriaclitus!1. Psalm 110:1 The Lord said unto my Lord, Sit thou at my right hand, until I make thine enemies thy footstool. Bare in mind that David who wrote this was an Israelite who believed that,"the Lord our God is One Lord! This is a mystery! 2. The Lord possessed me in the beginning of his way, before his works of old. 23 I was set up from everlasting, from the beginning, or ever the earth was. 24 When there were no depths, I was brought forth; when there were no fountains abounding with water. 25 Before the mountains were settled, before the hills was I brought forth: 30 then I was by him, as one brought up with him: and I was daily his delight, rejoicing always before him; Proverbs 8:22-30 (Indeed the Only Begotten In Whom He is Well Pleased! 3. Proverbs 30:4 Who hath ascended up into heaven, or descended? who hath gathered the wind in his fists? who hath bound the waters in a garment? who hath established all the ends of the earth? what is his name, and what is his son’s name, if thou canst tell? Once again remember that these were people whose rallying cry was: Hear O Israel, the Lord your God is One Lord! Now we see an obvious contradiction by Philo and his ilks: Philo&co : Logos is a thought or reason hence when God expresses the word, He says Be and it is so. Now the same Philo: Logos is the highest of the demiurges, an intermediary between God and the material world! Here Philo tries real hard to reconcile his jewish background and his hellenistic philosophies the result? CONFUSION! Where exactly do they stand!? This happens and proves that the Fact of the Divine Nature was stolen and there was a battle in keeping the concept while at the same time prostituting it to suit their purposes! And by the way; the doctrine of logos was originally created by a Jew(Philo), not a Christian, so it kinda debunks trinitarian claims.Rather John restores the Ark of God back to its Original position with the proper meaning known milleniums before this time! Ask, why did they not use the Word 'Sophia' meaning Wisdom in Greek after all that is what the Real Source they stole from used! The challenge was that perhaps they only knew of the abstract wisdom in a man and they needed something external since this will suit their need for an intermediary! Hence they rather went for the word,'Logos' meaning word, speech etc They must have realised that a wise man's wisdom can only be known by his words! But still, could not reconcile the word being an abstract or a being (confusion among the pilferers of the Ark)! Now then Why did John retain the Word Logos? Simple. It was known to the Hebrews that Wisdom was the One that Expressed/Revealed the Father: 2 hath in these last days spoken unto us by his Son, whom he hath appointed heir of all things, by whom also he made the worlds; 3 who being the brightness of his glory, and the express image of his person, Hebrews 1:2,3a These was written to Hebrew believers who though believed, were very conservative about there heritage! Here the writer states something known and accepted to the average Hebrews.(Hence when Jesus said God was His Father they instinctively tried to stone Him because that brings up His being equal with the Father)! Point I am driving at is that the Hellenists took not only the Fact but also this understanding (of Wisdom being the Father's expression) and attempted to conform it to their 'higher knowledge'. Hence John reclaimed both, moreso, Greek was the language then so all is in order! Besides, the Gnostic Greeks regards matter (eg the flesh) to be intrinsically evil hence the Word being made flesh is in total contradistinction with the Philo/Grecian/Gnostic views! This is why the same John, having these Grecio/Gnostic corrupters in mind said: and every spirit that confesseth not that [size=13pt]Jesus Christ is come in the flesh[/size] is not of God: and this is that spirit of antichrist, whereof ye have heard that it should come; and even now already is it in the world. 1John 4:3 When one copies material and presents it as his own; thats what we call plagiarism; how is plagiarized material considered 'Word Of God' by Christians?It was a battle for Truth and thank God, God that preserves His Word reveals the folly of the Gnostics and their kind! A Muslim debater and the author of Muslim Christian Dialogue, by H.M. Baagil argued that John 1:1 is a clear mistranslation of Greek wordInteresting, now read and judge: No man hath seen God at any time; the only begotten Son, which is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared him. John 1:18 So , was this also mistranslated? The Son IS the Word as Hebrews 1:2,3 confirms. Note that John did not write Hebrews and the thought here agrees with the Son revealing/expressing the Father! Sch8200:Father spoke from Heaven after He (Jesus) was baptised. That tells you God was on the Throne all along!In the light of the above, it is fully relevant! Now Muslims claim David as one of Islam's prophets but I hope you realise he wrote both Psalms up there! One of the appearances of the Pre-Incarnated Christ is His visit to Abraham in company of 2 angels and Jesus would go on to cement this when He said He was before Abraham.John 8:58 What then? This is a belief rooted and grounded among the Hebrews and all of a sudden one comes along after milleniums and says it is not so,a position curiously taken by occultic Gnostics(the real plagiarists)? Think! Sch8200:I saw your attachments! Sincerely speaking, I would not expect such simpletonic replies from a Christian worth the Name! 1. from 1538-1970 Bible has much been changed! Funny!!! The version preserved through the Vaudois remains untouched in the KJV form! That one dates back to 120AD and these people preserved every jot at the cost of their lives and the KJV agrees thereto. What then? 2. The one on Matthew 1:18 and Luke 1:26,27 is very nauseating! What? The writer endeavors to use this to establish that Holy Ghost=Gabriel. But why did he omit this: Then said Mary unto the angel, How shall this be, seeing I know not a man? 35 And the angel answered and said unto her, T[b]he Holy Ghost shall come upon thee, and the power of the Highest shall overshadow [/b]thee: therefore also that holy thing which shall be born of thee shall be called the Son of God Luke 1:34,35 angel not the same as Holy Ghost! etc |
sonofthunder:Amen, and you too. thanks a lot. |
sonofthunder:Oh yes I remember now! Welcome back. |
sonofthunder:I know one sonofthunder here before, are you the one? |
herald9:Kindly prove the highlighted (from the Bible) including ages of your respondents bearing in mind the 45-55 range you claimed initially. Sarah's main issue was barreness. Old age came in later; the issue of deadness of womb came up when Abraham was 100 and Sarah was 90 Genesis 17:17 Any similarities to today? |
ValentineMary:was it insanity and/or barbarism when he expected a child from a barren, dead womb, he himself being more or less dead?(simply because God promised it) And did he get what he expected? Will it also be insanity if he assayed to obey that command with same expectation that God will raise the child up back again? Answer YES or NO. For crying out loud the significance here is that we should do God's will even if it demands killing. Faith based religion is dangerous and should be looked at as suchWould you honestly say this in the light of what we find in the early Church and their communities? , I have heard people saying that they would kill if the pope under God told them to do soAnd those people spoke for over 700 million? Is every christian under the pope? And how many people were thus tested in the WHOLE BIBLE afterwards? . If this Abraham story is d basis for christianity, then christianity lack any basis for morality.Can this be proven on the field, using the Bible and from history? As an atheist, what should be society's basis for morality? And u also said that God was testing him. For whatAbraham had to choose to be blessed, his free moral agency had to play a part. |
Empiree:Sure HE is. But reading your same Bible, if you believe Jesus is God, then there is conflicts here bcus we read in the Bible about Jesus limitations. We read his beginning and his death. So you will have to question Bible writers how they got it mixed up.That's because, the Word became Flesh In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. 2 The same was in the beginning with God. 3 All things were made by him; and without him was not any thing made that was made. 14 And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us, (and we beheld his glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father,) full of grace and truth. John 1:1-2,14 And when he became flesh, which means his power was limited. Who was then the authority of heavens and controlling angels, water and sea, birds and animal and fishes, Jinn and other unseen while the flesh was on earth?.....did he put the heaven in autopilot grinThe Father spoke from Heaven after He (Jesus) was baptised. That tells you God was on the Throne all along! Schola8200:The nearest you will get is where HE confirmed His being with the Father (as John 1:1,2 confirms) from the beginning: 4 I have glorified thee on the earth: I have finished the work which thou gavest me to do. 5 And now, O Father, glorify thou me with thine own self with the glory which I had [size=13pt]with[/size] thee before the world was. John 17:4,5 Sch8200:Okay he grants permission to people to enter paradise? This verily contradicts: Muslim also reported from Anas that the Messenger of Allah (saw) said: "I will come to the gates of paradise and ask for it to be opened. The gatekeeper will ask, "Who are you?" I will say, "Muhammad". The gatekeeper will say, "I was ordered not to open the gate for anyone else before you"". [Saheeh Muslim] Who will give this order? That must be the one that grants access then not Mohammed! Sch8200:Which part of the Quran agrees with this hadith being Muhammed's claims? (since that is the measure for accepting and rejecting hadiths). The Prophet (PBUH) said, "Whoever guarantees me (the chastity of) what is between his legs ( i.e. his private parts), and what is between his jaws ( i.e., his tongue), I guarantee him Paradise." Sahih Al-Bukhari Hadith 8.799 Narrated by Sahl bin Sad Sch8200Hear John: 16 John answered, saying unto them all, I indeed baptize you with water; but one mightier than I cometh, the latchet of whose shoes I am not worthy to unloose: he shall baptize you with the Holy Ghost and with fire: Luke 3:16 He was not just another prophet! Now hear Jesus confirming same and setting John 14&15 in proper perspective for all time: 4 and, being assembled together with them, commanded them that they should not depart from Jerusalem, but wait for the promise of the Father, which, saith he, ye have heard of me(referring to John14&15). 5 For John truly baptized with water; but ye shall be baptized with the Holy Ghost not many days hence. Acts 1:4,5 Muslims have no problem with this statement at all. We have NO DOUBT that Muhammad {Allah's Peace and Blessings be upon him} and his followers will go to paradise. One of the common understanding of this verse is, a muslim who claims to follow Islam but he has bad attitude, he does not observe obligatory duties often (like skipping salat, not fasting ramadan or follow the rules, not paying zakat etc), such a person should not expect the prophet to intercede for him/her. We have to help ourselves first by obeying and observing religious duties.You believe he will go there but does the Quran agree with the hadith that he will be the one to grant permissions for who enters? As for the Hereafter, I seek refuge in Allah and he (i.e. the Prophet) knew that he was going to paradise, but he said "I don't know what He (i.e. Allah) will do to me and to you in this life. Will I be kicked out just as the Prophets (may Allah bestow His peace and blessings upon them) before me were kicked out? Or would I be killed just as the Prophets before me were killed?"Okay. As regards the highlighted, that was said after the Word became flesh and assumed the form of a Servant. "But He will reply, 'I don't know you or where you come from. Away from me, all you evildoers!' Luke 13:27There is NO repentance after death! It's a Divine principle. "But about that day or hour no one knows, not even the angels in heaven, nor the Son, but only the Father. Mark 13:32Because, at this point, the Word was flesh and had willingly subjected Himself to the limitations of mortal man! Sch8200:Like I said, there have always being these divisions, it was prophesied. Those who dont deliberately ignore this in their Bibles: Who is a liar but he that denieth that Jesus is the Christ? He is antichrist, that denieth the Father and the Son 1 John 2:22 So, we have antichrist movements, opposing Christ in the guise of Christ. make a distinction! Who said so?You are wrong. It's 3 in 1 not 1 in 1! The use of lower case points to the time of the translation and the need to be faithful to the mss to the details!Even the OT uses he for the Father! Sch8200:Not so fast! This was the basis of their being One in Us: John 17:23a I in them, and Thou in Me...! (Christ Who was ONe With the Father dwelling IN the believers) Your mistaken supposition would have been correct if Jesus had said I WITH Thee and They WITH Us! Sch8200You appear to have forgotten the place quoted: Here is it: John 15;26a,27 But when the Comforter is come...he shall tetsify of me.you also shall bear witness because:YOU HAVE BEEN WITH ME FROM THE BEGINNING Also Jesus speaking to His disciples said: John15:20 ...If they have kept my saying, THEY WILL KEEP YOURS ALSO Finally, Jesus said: John 17:20 Neither pray I for these alone(the Apostles) but also for them also which shall believe on me THROUGH THEIR WORD I believe all these strongly ratifies the NT ahead of time! @underlined, isnt the same Bible you all read that got you confused in the first place?. I am sure if you ask 10 christian who is Jesus, you would get different answers. This video is a hint. It is only 10 mins long. Or watch from 4mins to see confusion grinI have already pointed out the antichrist group as given in the NT. The measure for knowing the truth is clearly given! Sch8200I refer you to that passage by John that should help you know who is for Christ and who is for antichrist! What does the highlighted mean?Are those versions right for adjusting that part to suit their opinions or that of their detractors? (We condemn the Greeks for cutting off 1 John 5:7, we disclaim the versions that make grievous changes and we hail thee Vaudois for upholding every jot in the Word at the expense of their lives!) Tafsir(commentary) of this verse says these are 5 most powerful prophets and messangers of Allah. Now if Jesus is God because John(p) said his greater than him, then you may want to consider Muhammad to God since he too has authority to choose who goes to paradise.Again, is there a passage in the Quran that backs up the hadith that said so? John said Jesus was before him meaning Jesus had been before he, John, was born!WRONG! John was born before Jesus! The First People to Enter Paradise:So where is Jesus, Abraham, Moses now? Especially Jesus? After the Word became flesh,He totally humbled Himself and assumed the reputation of a Servant so expecting Him to say I am God is not something you will find.I believe the highlighted is a deliberate attempt at mockery especially when a lot has been said regarding this issue namely the Father being distinct from the Son and yet being One. No problem. Because this Gospel does not support Divinity of Jesus it is refuted? smh.Before you fight for it the author of this 'gospel' tried to incorporate Islam into one of the Gospels but contradicted Islam. Take a vacation here: https://www.nairaland.com/2912069/gospel-barnabas-laid-rest At underlined, which Gospels are they?. I dont know of any 'real Gospels' among the extant ones. And "son" of God, which has been thrown around for yrs does not have weight anymore because there are other Sons of God and even daughters of God. Even "unique sons of God. All of them are in the Bible. So why is Jesus being 'son' of God definitive?. And have you not exceeded the limits in your religion by declaring Jesus is God, Son of God, that the Father came down and humbled Himself and transformed Himself to servant andQuite unfortunate that you are resorting to mockery!!! QUote where this was written either by me or in the Bible |
herald9:The generation you are referring to where those before the flood! After the flood, it was shorter! For example, Nahor, Abraham's grandpa died at 119, Terah Abraham's dad lived to 205. Nahor had a son at 29 years of age, Terah at 70 etc Quite different from what obtained before the flood. |
Empiree:The Bible clearly says the Word was God and that the Word became flesh and being found in fashion as a man, He made Himself of no reputation and became a Servant. Hence all those descriptions of human body etc are in order! Jesus’ Human Body:All this was after the Word became flesh! Jesus’ Human EmotionsThat was because the Word has become flesh! The second verse, of course, is striking. For Christians who clearly affirm Jesus’ deity, Mark 13:32 seems like trouble. But what looks difficult at first glance proves to be a glorious confirmation of Jesus’ humanity and a very helpful piece in formulating our 'Christology'.For the same reason! Just when He said none is good but God alone, He wasnt implying that He was sinful but Yes, the Word had become flesh! Expatiate on this:I will look out for the First Person Pronoun - I. The Prophet (PBUH) said, "Whoever guarantees me (the chastity of) what is between his legs ( i.e. his private parts), and what is between his jaws ( i.e., his tongue), I guarantee him Paradise." Sahih Al-Bukhari Hadith 8.799 Narrated by Sahl bin SadNow did Mohammed mean he will open the gates of paradise to the person? But Jesus said He will send the Spirit and that the Spirit will come In HIS NAME. Now, do you mean Mohammed was referring to himself doing it when this was said: Surah Al Hijr Chapter 15 verse 29 “When I have fashioned him (in due proportion) and breathed into him of My spirit, fall ye down in obeisance unto him.” [Al-Qur’an 15:29] But Jesus was referring to Himself in accordance with the prophecy of John the baptist that," He shall baptize with the Holy Ghost" There is a difference! Read this as well:Now be sincere, was Muhammed saying he will go to prepare that place for those category of people? When report had it that he said (i stand to be corrected) that he could not tell where he was going after death(quote the correct statement in case that report is not right)! We are talking of One that said and of Whom it was said that," He it is that baptizes with the Holy Ghost!" literally. At this point I believe we can all agree that the Spirit promised by Christ was not a man.Are all true believers? Even Jesus withdrew from some that appeared to believe on Him because He knew they were not wholehearted! So divisions etc does not nullify the Word! So with this clear confusion from your Book, you still think Jesus and 'Father' means same thing?.Who said so? This is clear case of two distinct nature.And both are Perfect in One: that they all may be one; as thou, Father, art in me, and I in thee, John 17:21a You have to question Bible writers here. They got you people confused Thats why Christians have different views of who Jesus truly was. We Muslims have no problem with that. This brings back my previous question, did Jesus approve NT?To know Who Jesus was read the NT? Not the views of men. Yes Jesus approved of the NT! Both the Gospels and the Epistles! As per the text in blue, do you mean the Spirit is the Word? Do shed more light!Good point. Please allow me to say few words here. I quoted a verseof Quran earlier that the word "Ruh" can not be fully understood by human. And I further said that Quran itself says it is beyind our comprehension. Here is that verse of Quran again. "They ask thee concerning the Spirit (of inspiration). Say: "The Spirit (cometh) by command of my Lord: of knowledge it is only a little that is communicated to you, (O men!)" Yusuf Ali 17:85 And I said earlier that it mean this words "Be! and it is". In Arabic, it means "Kun Faya Kun" It is Command that Allah utters anytime He wants something done. So when He wanted Mary, mother of Jesus to conceive without male sperm, Allah simply said to her "Be! and he(Jesus) was conceived. That Magical Words of Allah still exist today. Now, let me give you a little experience of mine. Quran speaks of people who do much dhikr (remembrance of God) usually in group or seclusion. These people experience many things. This dhikr is about chanting Allah's Names and Attributes with iklas(sincerity). In the process, Allah in His infinite Mercy may reveal or unveil certain unseen world to you. Let me give you example, My godfather I grew up with is a man who involve with many dhikr(remembrance of Allah). He was in seclusion (like Mary of Jesus did) for seven days. It was his teacher who gave him some Names of Allah and His Attributes and how to invoke Him(God). In order to do that, you must remain inside a clean room for seven days without seeing the sky. Anyways, the first 3days, at the end of the 3rd night, a being appeared to him in his room while doors and windows are locked. He appeared from nowhere standing in front of him. "He" appeared in form of a man of-course and picked up piece of paper where Allah's Names are written, He erased or crossed out something and re-wrote another and gave him back the paper. My godfather asked him "who are you" but he did not answer and disappeared. So he was wondering what he did to his paper. By the time he looked to see what he did, he shouted Allahu Akbar!. Guess what he did?. He corrected his mistakes. He said (for example) that his teacher supposed to write scholar8200 but he wrote SCOOLAR8100. He said he did not know the mistake was there until the man appeared. Now, my question to you is what do you call that man?........God?. Remember that 'man' came from Allah's Names and Attributes chanted by my godfather. This incident did not happen 1000yrs ago not even 100yrs ago not even 50yrs ago. It was just in the 80s and still happens now. This kind of incident is pretty much personal experience. It is about relationship btw Allah and His servant. This has absolutely nothing to do with SALVATION of the entire Muslims.[/quote]That's not God! Who do you think he is? But in Christianity, if you think this "holy spirit" which lives or dwells in you is what determine central or universal salvation of Christians, then there is no way you all could have universal doctrine. Universal Doctrine has to be plain and clear. So John 14 and 15 could not be talking about personal 'holy spirit' whereby individual would come up with their own version of Jesus.The presence of the counterfeit (and there are many) shows there IS an Authentic! The basis of test is the Word! The early Church is an example! Going through Acts you will find a number of times that they all acted with ONE ACCORD, this Unity still exists not necessarily within a denomination but among true believers scattered all over the World! No one claims the Divinity of Christ based on the Anointing of the Spirit! I never said so! I know very well that there were many that were anointed and strengthened by the Spirit in the OT!What does the highlighted mean? Hear John speak:Refer to the manner of speaking, was Mohammed the We highlighted? If no, then he is not the I in that other Sura you quoted! Tafsir(commentary) of this verse says these are 5 most powerful prophets and messangers of Allah. Now if Jesus is God because John(p) said his greater than him, then you may want to consider Muhammad to God since he too has authority to choose who goes to paradise.John said Jesus was before him meaning Jesus had been before he, John, was born! And as regards the highlighted, where does Mohammed make his choices? And hear what John's mum had to say:After the Word became flesh,He totally humbled Himself and assumed the reputation of a Servant so expecting Him to say I am God is not something you will find. Meaning?. Are those christian who dont believe Jesus is God dont claim they have "holy spirit" as well?. They said their doctrine is inspired by holy spirit. So how many holy spirit?. Holy spirit supposed to give one universal message to Christians. Grab my point?Not every one that makes a claim is genuine! We test claims and doctrines by the Whole Word. And by calling Jesus God,isnt that innovation introduced by some Christians?. Which of the disciples of Jesus called him God and he was not rebuked by Jesus?. The one place i know of in the Bible where Jesus is called God by 'disciple' was rebuked by Jesus himself. SO whether he is called God or son of God it is all innovation after ascension of Jesus.That one you are alluding to is from the refuted 'gospel of Barnabas'. In the real Gospels, Jesus commended Peter and even told him that the revelation Peter had of Him being the Christ, the Son of God was from the Father! I leave you with this verse againWere these not the same people Muslims were asked to get clarification from being accused of exceeding limits? How do we reconcile this? And if the Quran was completed between 609-632, it means the Trinity was not a 17th century addition after all but had been there all along! |
johnydon22:Not for a Barren Woman who by reason of old age had a dead womb, had passed the age of child bearing and had stopped all copulative activities since there was no more pleasure therefrom! You talk of ovarian transplant! Why? That one wanted a kid and expected one. It is rather anachronistic to compare Sarah to a woman who underwent a transplant! So please i repeat again "Is the conviction that your child was a gift from God a justifiable reason to murder him/her in respect to that conviction?However, the second passage I quoted showed that Abraham knew even if he killed Isaac, it would not be the end; a rather foolhardy effort not different from expecting a child from a barren,dead womb! and you would do same i suppose? "Like I said we have the antecedents of Abraham hence any likeness should start therefrom. And in this case, what point / or for what reason will God make such a command? It is really outstanding the type of wicked evil barbarism adherents of religions who claim high moral sky scrapper would celebrate and defend..Your claim of barbarism will be understood if the real believers such as those in the early church and their likes today murdered loved ones at will under the guise of it being a command and a step in faith! |
CoolUsername:Like I said we have the antecedents of Abraham hence any likeness should start therefrom. And in this case, what point / or for what reason will God make such a command? Apart from Abraham, is there ANY ONE thus tested in the Bible? |
nasiayam:The New Testament has a Promise of God putting His laws in our minds and writing them in our heart. Besides, the New Testament/Covenant has God's promising to give us a New Heart and putting His Spirit in us to enable us walk in His Ways. But then, attempt to read Matthew chapters 5-7 and see the extent of God's LAws that we are enabled to keep when we come into the New Testament; they could not manage to do these things in the OT! Why? Hardness of Heart! Does this mean that since these laws do not exist in the New Testament, then that would allow the son to marry his own mother?Coincidentally somebody did similar in the NT and here is the 'gift' he got: 5 to deliver such an one unto Satan for the destruction of the flesh, that the spirit may be saved in the day of the Lord Jesus. 13 But them that are without God judgeth. Therefore put away from among yourselves that wicked person. 1 Corinth 5:5,13 They did not say ," oh there was no law against it that is why he did it. NO WAY" or the brother to marry his own sister? or a Gay person to become a minister or priest in a church? and if that would be ok, then wouldn't that all be a contradiction to what Jesus wants since he is the one who inspired the Old Testament?The penultimate answer applies in substance to this! What I am finding very confusing from the Christians is that they base their life all on the New Testament, and the New Testament does not have many laws in it. It hardly covers any hot topic or issue that we deal with in our life. For instance, the Old Testament has its own laws for inheritance, but the New Testament doesn't.I am sure by now you are no longer confused. Besides, the Law given in the OT had parts that were there because a Nation was just about to commence and God wanted that Nation to be Theocratic! We are not called to form a Nation or a parallel government with our own set of constitution! The laws of the land, to the degree to which they do not disagree with the Word, are okay for such issues. What is one to do on these issues |
hahn: Scholar8200: |
johnydon22:The emphasis here is that the man in question had already resigned to fate and was not anticipating the coming of a son through Sarah. What makes this a miracle is that 1. GOD promised it and Abraham believed that promise; 2. Apart from that, Sarah was not only very old but as barren as a brick! . (that's why at 75, Abraham had Ishmael through Hagar). Like I said, there was demonstrable basis for Abraham's faith in God. Considering his reaction when he had to dismiss Ishmael, you can tell that he was a real father who loved his kids. However, the second passage I quoted showed that Abraham knew even if he killed Isaac, it would not be the end; a rather foolhardy effort not different from expecting a child from a barren,dead womb! |
lexiconkabir:When there are passages to back God's watching over them? Anyway, no problem. |
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Where do you stand?!
throughout Europe and the British Isles. The Vaudois people were regarded by the Protestants and Baptists as "pre-Reformers," passing down the gospel message till the Reformation of the 1500s. Their Bibles and others translated from them, were so accurate they were included in translating the King James Bible.
Remember that all these were written milleniums before Heriaclitus!