₦airaland Forum

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Jozzy4:
Okay , Jesus is another God ?

As you understand it.

Jozzy4:
Okay , you agree with the JW'S that paul is refering to Jesus.

Or am I missing something for such?

Nw answer the second part ! "No man has seen God at anytime " john 1:18 , question : didnt people see Jesus sometimes?

They do! and that's the purpose of this thread so that JWs can explain to us after Jesus was seen by many Apostle Paul can still use THREE ATTRIBUTES THAT MAKES GOD GOD FOR JESUS of which JWs openly ADMITTED.

Concerning That verse giving you headache, the verse said " dwelling in unapproachable lights" , that phrase in the context reveal that since his ascension to heaven, he dwells in unapprochable light therefore no man has see or can see him anymore . Paul's journey to damascus prove this fact , it was the light from Jesus WHOM PAUL HIMSELF CANT SEE that makes him blind . Its indeed unapproachable .

Whereas it's only God who dwells in unapproachable light.

Or has Angel ever described to dwell in unapproachable light before?

Again before you twist that verse, the verse says [size=14pt]"whom not one of men HAS SEEN..."[/size]

This never talked about His ascension or resurrection.

I know you purposely put ascension to heaven in other to explain away the events that happened during 40days of Jesus' resurrection.

Jozzy4:
Alright , is he that same God called Jesus ?

NO!
Let me see how you'll understand my NO!

Jozzy4:
Allah or whom are u talking about , tell us His Name ?

The Great Yahweh in Hebrew, Eledumare in Yoruba, Ugbangiji in Hausa as it is in every languages but just ONE CREATOR.

Jozzy4:
Typical confuse man.
Answer my 2 questions and stop runing in circles

Your first question is baseless because if those verses weren't talking about Jesus Christ I won't be here.

Your second question has been answered through my reply.

Just let me know any part you aren't clear with.

Jozzy4:
Brother , who is God ?

The uncreated creator who dwells in eternity!

Sometimes it's good to be silent than to be proven ITK.

Jozzy4:
You go wait tire ! Those guys hardly engage in a conversation where the OP is a confuse man

Let me ask you :

QUESTION 1: do you admit what they admit ? I mean do you agree with them that Paul is talking about Jesus ?

QUESTION 2: what do you understand by " no man has seen God AT ANYTIME" Joh 1:18 emphasis on " at anytime" ?

If your emphasis is on the phrase AT ANYTIME

Did you read in the OP the emphasis on those verses quoted?

Here is one of the emphasis: [size=14pt]"...whom not one of men has
seen or can see.”[/size] —1 Timothy 6:15, 16.

NOTICE THIS: NOT ONE OF MEN HAS SEEN
What do you understand by this and AT ANYTIME?

The Creator informs us in His revealed Word to man:

21 because, although they know who God is, they do not glorify him as God or thank him. On the contrary, they have become futile in their thinking; and their undiscerning hearts have become darkened. 22 Claiming to be wise, they have become fools! 23 In fact, they have exchanged the glory of the immortal God for mere images, like a mortal human being, or like birds, animals or reptiles!

24 This is why God has given them up to the vileness of their hearts’ lusts, to the shameful misuse of each other’s bodies. 25 They have exchanged the truth of God for falsehood, [size=14pt]by worshipping and serving created things, rather than the Creator — praised be he for ever. Amen.[/size] Rom 1:21-25

There's a difference between those things created by the Creator.

Over 200 views but no comment by any Jehovah witness.

Empiree:
Emusan, indeed. Why are you deceiving yourself?. Are you trying to change the nature?. It's mandated (even though it's not obligatory) for man to marry more than one woman. It's man's nature. Look at "Nollywood", many of whom are christians have concubines, secret wives, or even openly married second, third and 4th wives.

Do you listen to some of them lately openly saying that Muslims are correct?. Jibola Debo is typical example of that. That one woman is not enough for a man. Quran allows up to 4 wives. That's what matters. In the West where they frown at more than one wife, they marry one but have girl friends and sex partners outside of their matrimonia homes. That's not safe for women at all. That's like using women as sex object without security. So what are you talking about.

When i was in High school, my vice principal who is a christian married 5 women in the city. But his job was in village as VP. He slept with students as he wishes. He even failed some guys for competing with him i:e he snatched their GFs from them. He's a pastor in the city known to marry 5 wives. But he's a fornicator in the village and he's also called pastor/vp vis a vis. Many of them like that. Dont tell me "he's just a bad egg. He's not following the scripture". That's irrelevant

Seriously shaking my head for you!

mahdino:
Mr. Emusan, long time how are u and the family hope everything is fine.

I'm doing great by the help of God through His Son Jesus Christ.
How are you and the family doing also?

Mr. Emusan allow your self to be free.

From what sir?

You already have things at the back of your mind.

Everybody does but the knowledge of God superseded it all.

Why did God allow his prophets (which he speaks to) to marry more than one wives?

Thank Yahweh you used ALLOW not commanded as Muhammad usually claimed.

The critical part is God has already laid down the golden rule "Man shall leave his father and mother and CLIFF UNTO HIS WIVE (singular)" so if one disobeyed God and married more than one it's not God's command but YOUR OWN DISOBEDIENT.

Still you have fail to show a single place in the bible where polygamy is prohibited.

After the quote from Genesis and Jesus Christ Himself you can still say this.

In an important things of life and religion you dont use assumption to judge, you have to have it in black and white clearly stated.

So where does it written black and white that people can marry more than one wife? If not your own assumption that some people married more than one wife.

almost all the prophets practice polygamy and Jesus even for once did not condemn it.

Thank Yahweh again that you used ALMOST but NOT ALL.

Lemme give you this Bible Study assignment: find out the circumstances that surrounded marrying more than one wife by those prophets and the message God was using it to pass to us.

But Jesus can allude to the same golden rule God laid down when He was addressing an issue related to marriage.

Thank you.

Bitte Schön!

Please i lost your phone No. you can flash me if u have mine or post it here.

I'm sorry I don't have yours either but this is mine 08126378332

Remain bless.

mahdino:
Brother, you have not proved your point.

Very funny after reading below statement of yours.

The fact you are saying that [size=14pt]God said a man and woman[/size] should come together and be one does not mean that marrying more than one is forbidden in the Bible

Just listing to yourself, you agree that God said: A MAN and WOMAN-(both singular) but you can still conclude that marrying more than ONE is not prohibited.

Why not plural?

This is the first part of the code and it's working fine when I run it (I mean the first SELECT BOX [for makes] works perfect).

<?php
$makes = array('Acura', 'BMW', 'Lexus', 'Toyota', 'Honda');

if(isset($_POST['submit']))
{ echo '<pre>'; print_r($_POST); echo '</pre>'; }
?>
<form action="" method="post">
<select id="makes" name="makes"><!-- Make sure to give the select box a id, this will make it much easier to target with jquery. -->
<?php
foreach($makes as $m){ echo '<option value="'.$m.'">'.$m.'</option>'; }
?>
</select>
<select id="models" name="models"><!-- Make sure to give the select box a id, this will make it much easier to target with jquery. -->
</select>
<input type="submit" name="submit" value="Submit">
</form>

BUT The Second SELECT BOX [for model] didn't work at all

This is the AJAX code:

<script>
$('#makes').change(function(){
var make = $(this).val();
$.post('select-request.php', {make:make}, function(data){
$('#models').html(data);
});
});
</script>

And this is the select-request.php

<?php
error_reporting(E_ALL);

$acura = array('Integra', 'TSX', 'MDX');
$bmw = array('1 Series', '3 Series', '5 Series', 'X5');
$lexus = array('ES300', 'GX470', 'GS350', 'LS400H');
$toyota = array('Venza', 'Camry', 'Corolla', 'Echo');
$honda = array('Pilot', 'Accord', 'Civic', 'Ridgeline');

if(isset($_POST['make']))
{
$model = strtolower($_POST['make']);

foreach($$model as $mo){ echo '<option value="'.$mo.'">'.$mo.'</option>'; }
}


?>

Please will the javascript/script tag be outside or inside of the FORM TAG?
What can I add to achieve what I want?

Thanks!

JMAN05:
I mean the scripture Jesus used - Septuagint. Did it occur in Hebrew characters or Greek?

Respond to the manuscript you claimed to have come from the first century AD. Your proof?

Firstly, I'll take you more serious only if you can provide answers to my previous questions because it's just too obvious that you're attacking strawman. I NEVER BOYCOTTED ANY OF YOUR QUESTION HERE BUT YOU DO, YET YOU'RE THROWING MORE QUESTIONS WITHOUT ADDRESSING MINE.

Secondly, you said Jesus used Septuagint whereas in your previous post your claim was "that is LIKELY what the apostles and even Jesus used." very funny of you...

About the First Manuscript, you provided a Link and my respond to it was did you even read the link you provided at all?

I asked this because I didn't see how your link refuted my point nor were you be able to provide a tangible quote from it to counter my claim.

Don't worry I know how a typical JWs behaves when s/he is stuck in between refutable facts.

Lastly, any attempt not to address those points I raised earlier but find your way around my post again will not be welcomed but end my reply here and it'll also good for you to bookmark this my post in case of it, so that you won't run your mouth any day that I run away.


*You can post any of your point I didn't address and let me post mine so that people can see and compare.

frosbel:
Or is he/she supposed to tow the line of the church without any argument or debate ?

Should I say longest time to you or you to me

@op
Your question is very simple, God doesn't want us to confuse lies with truths that's why God started documenting How Own words by Himself and had inspired many people through different generations to do likewise.

Most importantly the Only Wise God, the creator of heavens and earth, Ase yi o wu, I Am that I Am, Ancient of day, The only Saviour of man and our Eternal life is our BEST FRIEND and A true FATHER who is ready to listen to us and answer any of our question but the question is how many times have you asked God Himself about it?

Because Bible is a book YOU can make It says whatever you want It to say but the truth is those who have actually asked God have received the actual interpretation of the Word of God and you can be part of them!

Shalom! Ire ooo!

BERNIMOORE:
Time and energy you guys are using for all this arguments can be turned money, sorry I am just viewing

I'm telling you.

JMAN05:
Oga, we have a discussion already above. Go and face it. Don't gather many discussion for ursef lest u die on Nairaland.

See excuse everywhere, if I die how does it concern you? Jesus will receive, so to me to live is Christ and to die is gain.

But why do u sound like a wounded lion? Take it slow OK.

Coming from someone with excuses everywhere...

JMAN05:
Oga, those comments you cancelled are essential. I demand answers to them before I reply:

How many comments did I cancel?

I only cancelled the TWO statements I've already settled...now you're using this as an excuse to BOYCOTT the rest of the points I raised.

Do you still agree that Jesus read the divine name when he read the prophets?

Answered!!!

Where did you find the first century manuscript you spoke of?

Why do you keep rejecting the FIRST CENTURY MANUSCRIPTS evidence in possession today that the Divine name was not used?

Again

Why do you keep rejecting the FIRST CENTURY MANUSCRIPTS evidence in possession today that the Divine name was not used?

Wiki

https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Rylands_Library_Papyrus_P52

So, where did you get what you said?

Do you even read the link you provided? I guess you did not!

Answer my questions and those ones you boycott.

Which language characters of Gods name appeared in the scriptures used by Jesus?

Which scriptures did Jesus use first?

Give simple answer not a Talmud to fill the thread.

Like you always do.

JMAN05:
The emphasis I make on the septuagint is because, [size=14pt]that is likely what the apostles and even Jesus used.[/size] Not meaning that they didnt use any Hebrew scroll. [size=14pt]There were other manuscripts of the OT that they removed the name from.[/size]

We're going there;
@bold1-So you don't have the evidence that it was Septuagint that Jesus actually read in His own time.

@bold2-but your organization said IT WAS ONLY AFTER JESUS that the name started missing from the Hebrew scriptures.

I didnt say forged. They removed the name of God where it occurred.

And who remove where Jesus addressed the Father with the divine name from NWT that said to have restored it?

Am yet to see that first century manuscript. Second century? Yes. But the manuscript I mentioned above said nothing about God's name.

Were those over 5000 manuscripts reliable?
If God's name was removed without trace OVER 5000 Greek ONLY TEXT in possession without the ORIGINAL TO COMPARE WITH THEM how are will sure that it was ONLY the DIVINE NAME that was removed?

This means that many things that are not from God might have been inserted and many things from God might have been removed since these scribes are NOT TRULY JEHOVAH FAITHFUL SERVANT-apostate Christians (according to you)

Remove 'forged' above. [size=14pt]The name may have been removed cos they cant understand the name anymore.[/size] Since Moses, Abraham, Joshua, Solomon, Isaiah etc used the name, [size=14pt]do you think we shouldnt use it?[/size] and can we not include the name even when NT characters quote a scripture where the name appeared? This NWT did.

Just see how ridiculous the bold parts sound, @bold1-the name may have been removed cos THEY CAN'T UNDERSTAND THE NAME ANYMORE and you go on to the @bold 2 to ask do you think we SHOULDN'T USE IT? So you people are now the one who UNDERSTAND THE NAME that's why you can use but the people who are more closed to that time CAN'T, right

Since the ancient prophets of God used the name, there is no point to the tradition of not pronouncing the name. As such, Jesus used it. unless you believe he agreed with the pharisees.

And these ancient prophets who used it, do they quote someone else ONLY about the name or address God directly by the name?

Why Jesus didn't address the Father with the name for once?

[size=14pt]People's familiarity has always been the norm, not the correct pronunciation.[/size] For example, do you know how many names we pronounce/render a way different from how they are in the original?

Did this people's familiarity predated Jesus' time or after Jesus?

So if correct pronunciation has not been the norm, why do you argue that Jesus didn't follow the tradition of the pharisees BUT RATHER USED THE ACTUAL PRONUNCIATION?

This show that you're speaking from both side of your mouth.

Very funny Jesus didn't go with the tradition of men but used the actual pronunciation but the self acclaimed God's mouth piece can go with PEOPLE'S FAMILIARITY rather than go with the MORE CORRECT one.

CANTICLES: Well done bro , just some few minutes ago I came across a thread where a female atheist gave emusan a bible lecture .
Check this thread on pages 4 and 5 https://www.nairaland.com/2392515/did-anyone-ascend-into-heaven/5

JMAN05:
Honestly, the lady taught him. And he doesnt learn to be civil so that the shame wont be much when disproved. He keeps making noise.

Birds of the same feather flock together...like organization like followers!

On the same thread page 4 I said this, so no surprise at all. If your organization can do it, who are you not to follow suit?

You don't know JWs before

When their own Watchtower can discredit a whole one time respected Christian 'Justin Martyr' just because Justin Martyr preached that Jesus died on the CROSS not on the STAKE as they wrongly teach.

But in their one time booklet which was blindly distributed before they realized ALL THE LIES they put inside and quickly removed it their ONLINE library titled Should you believe in Trinity? in the booklet, OVER 5 BIBLE THRASHERS WERE quoted because those people spoke against Trinity BUT THEY FAILED TO TELL THEIR AUDIENCE that not do these people only speak against Trinity BUT THE BIBLE AS A WHOLE.

The person you HONEST about her post did not only thrash me BUT THE WHOLE BIBLE AND JEHOVAH HIMSELF.

Keep boycotting some of my points.

JMAN05:
You imply that the material I presented is no good testimony compared to the 5000 manuscript that omit the name.

The question is, since the xtian copyist removed the name in the septuagint do you view those manuscripts as a good proof that the name was never there?

Again, you and I agree that when Jesus read the OT, he didn't skip the name. But do you know that these manuscripts didn't even include the divine name in this place?

Don't u still get the point that something happened?

You talked about A BOOK in that POST you NOT SEPTUAGINT, go back to see how you keep throwing yourself off.

No, just live with it. U can research it.

Mtcheeeee

You don't get the point, do u?

Oga, [s]we agree he used the name while reading the law,[/s] and that he didn't stick to pharisaic tradition. Yet, the manuscripts we have never showed the name in these places. [size=14pt]It shows that even when Jesus used the name in another place, the copyists will remove it.[/size] Get d point bro. They did the same thing in the septuagint.

Note that it was not only in the septuagint that the removed it. The same happened in other manuscripts of the OT copied by 'christians'.

Since they removed it and the work of JWs is to REINSTALL the name where ever the scribes removed it, WHY IS THERE NO PLACE IN THE NWT where Jesus used it apart from the allege quotation from the OT or the scribes have removed it from NWT too?

The name you gave is not specific, but if the manuscript you are talking about is the one mentioned in the All Scripture Book, then it is Rylands 457.

So, how is did you date this manuscript to the first century AD?

Ask google...

Explain:

"I'm still wondering how Jehovah Witness got the pronunciation and rendering of Jehovah in YORUBA language.

In fact your organization has erroneously teach that Jehovah is an English word for the Divine name"

If I say you you're confusing things you will take it in another way. Remember you've swept these statements under carpet as if you didn't see it.

You're talking about Paul writing letters to the Greek, which I counter that something written in GREEK AND HEBREW won't be pronounced the same way.

This reinforced my point if Jehovah is pronounced in Hebrew, the pronunciation in Greek will be different also in YORUBA it will be different and this is difference from when I asked whether Jesus USED THE ACTUAL PRONUNCIATION at the synagogue which will leads to more accusation on Him by the Pharisees but swept under carpet by you.

If you ve never argued pronunciation, what do those comments mean?

Different pronunciation in different Languages is what you confused with whether Jesus used the actual pronunciation.

sorry, just carry that one go standard debate. humility will help u know more.

And still ranting as usual POST THE HEBREW & GREEK WORDS for JESUS simple, and let the humility starts helping me here!

So which characters of the divine name appeared in the septaugint?

You know!

Above should help us ask this xtian copyist that question. From above, [size=14pt]you will agree that they removed it wherever the name appeared.[/size] So we cant exactly know where. Sticking to where Jesus/others made quotations is a nice decision. dont you think so?

@bold-Since NWT has restored the Divine name where the scribes accused of removing it, why we didn't find A SINGLE PLACE IN THE NWT where Jesus addressed the Father? You once asked people like Abraham, David e.t.c used it why Jesus is exception? But when these people used it do they quote someone's work or addressed God directly with it?

Pardon sir, i dont get you:

"NWT used Jehovah 237 places in the NT whereas when [size=15]we[/size] check it ONLY 76 times is Jehovah included based on a direct Hebrew quote...so where did the remain INSERTION come from?"

You just pointed out that 237 times was a claim by the NWT, but you didnt explain what you are convinced you've found out.

SMH @underline for you sha.... let me come down to your level this time...on your own @BOLD it read when WE check IT (NWT) 76 times is Jehovah included based on a direct Hebrew quote (according to NWT claim)....so where did the remain INSERTION come from?" BUT according to NWT.

Do you understand now?

Thats simple logic. [s]you agree Jesus didnt skip the name while reading the Law.[/s] You are right, will he then skip it while making quotations in his day to day conversations?

Back to my early question, you agree Jesus used the actual pronunciation why did the actual pronunciation lost again because for Jesus to use the pronunciation it means Jesus has restored the long time lost pronunciation due to restriction.

The IT-2 p. 10 said:

"...Thus later copyists undoubtedly replaced the divine name in Tetragrammaton form with Ky′ri·os and The·os′"

This shows the our organisation knows that the name was removed. That being the case, your deductions were made out of context of that All Scripture Book.

What is the full meaning of IT?

Which one was first produced the one your organization praised the apostate Christian for doing a good job by removing God's name or the one you just quoted?

Where did you see this your first century?

Where did you see FIRST CENTURY in that post?

I know you're confused them together again, don't worry if you answer the question I will show you again.

Where is this first century manuscript?

Google is your friend.

He obviously did so, but it was removed. see above. They did it in sinaticus, even vatican 1207 in the OT parts. will the gospels be an exception for them?

YET no where it was RECORDED IN THE NWT (despite the restoration of the name) that Jesus addressed the Father with that name, who remove it in the NWT again?

I asked again who are these apostate Christians who removed the name are they Jews or Greek?

JMAN05:
The bible is not a record of all Pharisaic accusations.

But Pharisees' accusation were listed MORE THAN ONE...isn't it?

You see your problem? The septuagint is a living example that the actual write up of the bible was left untouched, but that the divine name was removed. And you are here making noise. Nawah o!

You're talking about a BOOK here not Septuagint, read what you said and my reply to it...

Again sorry for you. I know you cant see the error in that comment. Try and research before making noise. Let me leave you with that for now

And you can't point out the error.

Hey, during Jesus conversations, he made quotations from the "OT" where the name occured. If you are to be consistent, you will also agree that he didnt skip the name. So why shout that Jesus didnt use the name? Matt 22:44

HE MADE QUOTATION to OT...same excuse since but when addressing The Father He never addressed Him with the Divine name nor teaches His disciples to do so whereas The Apostles make many quotations from the OT and applied it to Jesus.

Which Greek manuscript are you talking about? The name.

John Rylands Papyri

In your TEXTUAL VARIATION of your organization statement, which manuscripts DATED BACK TO EARLY CENTURY were they talking about?

If they are not pronounced the same, why is this your noise about pronunciation about?

What are we saying and what are you talking about pronunciation? Re-read the post again so that you can understand.

Your assignment.

At least you should have prove me wrong be giving us the REAL HEBREW AND GREEK name of Jesus. This shows that you don't know any thing just an empty noise.

Go and do research sir, you are giving me more work here. Go and search which characters were used in Greek manuscript eg the septuagint.

And who told you I don't use to?

Like seriously? when Jesus quote the OT scripture where the name occur, what happens? Matthew will removed it?

Lame excuse, always Jesus quotes the OT but why Jesus never used the name ON HIS OWN? After all Jesus talked about God more than 800 times in the NT.

When you are serious, and you think your position is strong, open it.

I don't need to you can as well open it to prove my posit wrong.

Beside, my point is still within the frame of this thread you just used another style to boycott it.

Explain this according to the context it appeared:
[size=14pt]"NWT used Jehovah 237 places[/size] in the NT whereas when we check it ONLY 76 times is Jehovah included based on a direct Hebrew quote...so where did the remain INSERTION come from?"

@bold-make sense even to the unlearn ones...

By saying that Jesus didnt skip the name, you ve already agreed that the name occurred in the NT.

Not only to force me to agree also say I've agree to become JWs.

I have stated this before, that the context is talking about textual variations, not that there are no omissions. Why pick out of context? is that the only hope your point has for survival? sorry, it isnt a strong one.

TEXTUAL VARIATION...this is pointless the context of that statement is so glaring for any open-minded person This is it statement again: "Not only are there THOUSANDS of manuscripts to COMPARE but [size=14pt]discoveries of OLDER Bible manuscripts during the past few decades take the GREEK TEXT back as far as about the year 125 C.E.,[/size] just a couple of decades short of the death of the apostle John about 100 C.E. [size=14pt]These manuscript evidences provide STRONG ASSURANCE that we now have a DEPENDABLE Greek text IN REFINED FORM."[/size] All Scripture is Inspired of God and Beneficial p.319 (Capital, bold & underline-mine)

DEPENDABLE GREEK TEXT after the DIVINE NAME HAS BEEN REMOVED

Only perverted someone like you will say this is just about TEXTUAL variation but not to build faith on those manuscripts.

Name this manuscript that is dated back to the first century AD.

See above.

Beside which OLDER manuscripts DATED BACK to early century your organization is talking about in the above quote?

Until you answer the above. Keep rejecting a first century proof that the christians used the name.

Why do you keep rejecting the FIRST CENTURY MANUSCRIPTS evidence in possession today that the Divine name was not used?

Why would Jesus read the Divine name in the OT (according to JWs) but didn't address His Father with the same Divine name just for once during His time?

thewebcraft:
Hello I hope you don't mind send me ur email and I'll forward a real working example, eg u select a state and you see the local government area's in that state in another select box

Please help me look at these below codes whether the THE LOCATION depend on THE COUNTRY

I mean if there are lists of Countries under COUNTRY box and one selects any Country will the LOCATION auto fill with ALL STATES under LOCATION box?

Thanks!

<label for="country">Country</label>

<select id="country" class="show-menu-arrow selectpicker" name="coun">

<option value="">-</option>

<?php

$args=array(

'post_type' => 'Property',

'posts_per_page' => -1,

);

$i = 0;

$locations = array();

$wp_query=new WP_Query($args);

while($wp_query->have_posts()):$wp_query->the_post();

?>

<?php

$value = get_post_meta(get_the_ID(),'_cmb_pro_country', true);

if (!in_array($value, $locations) && $value != '') {

$locations[$i] = $value;

?>

<option value="<?php echo get_post_meta(get_the_ID(),'_cmb_pro_country', true);?>"><?php echo get_post_meta(get_the_ID(),'_cmb_pro_country', true);?></option>

<?php } ?>

<?php $i++; ?>

<?php endwhile;?>

</select>

<label for="location">Location</label>

<select id="location" class="show-menu-arrow selectpicker" name="location">

<option value="">-</option>

<?php

$args=array(

'post_type' => 'Property',

'posts_per_page' => -1,

);

$i = 0;

$locations = array();

$wp_query=new WP_Query($args);

while($wp_query->have_posts()):$wp_query->the_post();

?>

<?php

$value = get_post_meta(get_the_ID(),'_cmb_pro_location', true);

if (!in_array($value, $locations) && $value != '') {

$locations[$i] = $value;

?>

<option value="<?php echo get_post_meta(get_the_ID(),'_cmb_pro_location', true);?>"><?php echo get_post_meta(get_the_ID(),'_cmb_pro_location', true);?></option>

<?php }

$i++;

endwhile;?>

</select>

JMAN05:
since we know that Jesus cant go along with this tradition, is it a good point asking why the pharisees didnt accuse him with that? The bible is not a record of all pharisees accused him of, and it certainly didnt record everything.

Imaging the pharisees will accuse Jesus of PRONOUNCING the Divine name and the NT writers will never document it, despite many of Jesus' activities record at the synagogue. Very funny of you!

That Jesus used God's name is attested to by The Book of Jewish Knowledge, which says that Jesus "made himself master of the secret name of God".

So this book is NOW MORE AUTHENTIC than over 5000 Greek manuscripts that we have, right

That Jesus cannot go along with such traditiion is the truth. After all faithful servants of God before him used the name severally. So, the only reasonable objection you have is why the name is not found in the xtian Christian manuscripts made by copyist. Thats all. Though I have already addressed that.

Mind you what I mean by Jesus can't go with such tradition is totally different from your own point, Jesus read the BOOK in any language or WORD that was presented to Him i.e if where the Divine name appeared was LORD or God that's what Jesus read without any CORRECTION if not when He read it and USED the actual PRONUNCIATION (as you claim) the Pharisees would've accused Him of such, which the NT writer(s) will surely document since it isn't JUST ONE TIME that Jesus alluded to the OT in front of those Pharisees.

Do you mean that the Greek manuscripts dated back to First century AD was also a COPY-WRITE?

My dear we are talking about there pronunciation here. Dont shift the discussion. And how did you arrive at your 'Y'esous?

And who told you that Yeshua is hebrew? IF i say you know little about the subject you may think its an insult.

So do you expect that a name written in GREEK will be pronounce the same in Hebrew?

What is the Greek word of Jesus?

What is the Hebrew word of Jesus?

Habah, at least you agree that Jesus couldnt have skipped the name when he read an OT scripture where the name appear. So, if Matthew were to write about those areas Jesus quoted those scriptures, wont he write THE DIVINE NAME?

I've addressed the first part above.

The point here is when Jesus read the OT was the The Divine name is the ONE in the book or another word?

Are you telling us that The NT writers ALL wrote their books in Hebrew?

At least since they used other Greek equivalent of Hebrew in their books if the Divine name appeared in anywhere they would have used its Greek equivalent also.

If God's name was used by many servants of Jehovah in the prechristian era, and you dont take it serious as a proof that Jesus used it, then your problem is too much.

My problem is much or yours is far bigger Show me where Jesus/Apostles used it in the Greek NT manuscripts simple! You're just biting around the bush.

That is a subject of another thread. create one and invite me. And dont think that my response means that you are correct above. You are wrong. I ll tell you when you open a thread. [size=14pt]Since you agree the name appeared 76 times,[/size] the argument of the name not appearing in the NT is no longer valid. Take note!

See excuse, please how does it become subject of another thread And your hands are so heavy to create a thread bah...

Please where did I agree with the bold That's how you people always come with wrong conclusion. My statement was it ONLY 76 times is Jehovah included based on a direct Hebrew quote which is what NWT did not in general sense. YET you used "APPEARED" SMH

God protected his name, that was why the Septuagint fraud was detected. And that of the removal by apostate christians had been detected also.

And it was these apostate Christians work that your organization said "...These manuscript evidences provide STRONG ASSURANCE that we now have a [size=14pt]dependable Greek text in refined from"[/size]

Wonder shall never end, An apostates who removed the name of God were being praised for their work by the Organization who claimed to be the mouth piece of God.

Watchtower delima...

The facts show that the septuagint used in the first century AD had the name in it, so do you think that Paul, Matthew, Peter now chose to remove it from there own writings? Never!

Yet the writings of them which can be DATED BACK TO THE FIRST CENTURY AD also confirmed by your organization that it is a DEPENDABLE GREEK TEXT never included the name. Who do we believe, you or the manuscripts evidence?

Since it has been decoded that the name was intentionally removed from the septuagint, it is logical that Jesus apostles/disciples included that name in their writings, but apostate Christians removed it.

And God intrusted His word into the hands of an Apostate so that the name can be removed without A FAITHFUL servant of God to preserve it. Is that how God work THROUGHOUT THE HISTORY OF THE BIBLE?

Besides, your so called apostate Christians are they Jews or another tribe?

The book I quoted is talking about the first century AD.

And the manuscripts I'm being talking about were written in 21st Century AD bah...

JMAN05:
Of course he used the correct pronunciation.

Then why the Scriptures never documented where Scribes & Pharisees ever accused Jesus for PRONOUNCING the Divine name since it was TRADITIONALLY prohibited?
Why the TRUE PRONUNCIATION lost again if Jesus truly did?
In fact it's an opportunity for them to accuse Jesus for PRONOUNCING the Divine name in public as they were forbidden to do so (even though they might be wrong) but no where do we read such in the scriptures.

However for other languages, Hebrew names do not sound the same.

Does any language also sound the same in their names?

Those Greeks Paul often write to, and even Romans do not pronounce Jesus as Jews do. That would hold true for the divine name too.

When Paul and other NT writers wrote their books in GREEK and used Yesuos for Hebrew Yeshuah, do you mean they didn't use correct Greek word?

This is where we are going the problem of Divine name understanding would have stopped had it been that ANY NT WRITER used it in their work.
But evidence we have today is that NONE OF THEM USE IT.

If Jesus read it in the prophets, could Jesus not use it in his everyday conversation?

At least the only place to seek answer from to your question is the NT both early manuscripts and the translations we have today and since no such place where the NT writers DOCUMENTED the use of the DIVINE name by Jesus Christ in any conversation of His, then JWs should tell us where they get their own MANUSCRIPTS.

Why would he omit a name that appeared more than 3000 times in the bible he used?

Then where did you read it in the NT that Jesus used the name?

How can he not use a name used by Abraham, Moses, Jeremiah, Samuel, David, Solomon, Ezra, Isaiah, Ezekiel, Malachi, Micah, I can go on and on.

I will take this serious ONLY if you can give us the VERSE in the NT where Jesus ever addressed the Father with the Divine name

If Jesus didn't use it, then why didn't he?

This is the question I first asked you, you're the one making noise that I know little about this topic YET you're asking the question now.
So answer my question that CHART.

Was he against the use of the name or does he agree with the false tradition that the name shouldn't be pronounced?

If Jesus pronounce the name as it's a TRADITION not to do so, don't you think that the Scribes and Pharisees can use that as an evidence to accuse Jesus more? in case you forget they didn't believe He was the Messiah talk less of coming from God.

If Jesus didn't skip the name, do u imagine that Paul or Matthew will skip it? If they didn't skip it,

Where is the evidence of yours that THEY USE IT IN THE NEW TESTAMENT?

I won't reply your post again if you keep ignoring this question.

why do u consider it wrong when we use the name in those places quotations were made from the OT?

Using the name by JWs where the NT writers made a quotation from the OT isn't much problem but the main problems are:
1. we observe that THEY DIDN'T FOLLOW the same PRINCIPLE throughout the NT because had it been that they do, it is evident Jesus is Jehovah, so they're bias about it just because JESUS MUST NOT BE JEHOVAH.

2. NWT used Jehovah 237 places in the NT whereas when we check it ONLY 76 times is Jehovah included based on a direct Hebrew quote...so where did the remain INSERTION come from?

3. 83 times the New World Translation has included Jehovah with no support from the Hebrew Scriptures

4. Lastly, why would you even use it when there's no evidence in the NT GREEK manuscripts in possession? That means your organization had rewritten their own manuscripts for the blessed Apostles.

The name was removed by xtian copyist, the same way they removed it from the Septuagint.

So you mean as at early as first century God doesn't have power to protect His name from being removed from the Bible.

That means your organization is lying for claiming that "...These manuscript evidences provide STRONG ASSURANCE that we now have a [size=14pt]dependable Greek text[/size] IN REFINED FORM." Ibis

Please what is DEPENDABLE in a book that God's OWN NAME had been removed?

In a book entitled who was a Jew, Lawrence quoted a Talmud portion that indicate that christians that time used it.

At what time?

DualCore1:
Create a database table called "states" with the following fields "id(auto increment, primary key)", "state (varchar 100)"
Create another db table called "lgas" with the following fields "id (auto increment)", "state (foreign key)", "lga"

Now prefill the "states" db table with all the 36 states, do not prefill the IDs as this will be autoincremented.
Then prefill the "lgas" table with all the LGAs for all the states, ensure you fill in the ID of the state from the "states" table as the "states" field in the "lgas" table.

Now you should have a complete database of all states and their LGAs.

To the code:
Combining php, html, jquery

create a form with a select input field.
-query database for all the states
-foreach entry, create a new <option> tag inside the <select> you created. the value of the <option> tag should be the ID of the state from the DB "states" table.
-add a listener to the select statement, probably an onchange or onclick listener (check the jQuery documentation for help).
-create a variable in javascript (e.g var state_id that holds the <select>'s value, which is the ID of the selected state.
-in your JS add a function to the listener and the function should call the ajax() and you should give a php file name as the load attribute of this ajax(). e.g "load_lga.php". Remember to affix the ID to the file you are about to load like "load_lga.php?id="+state_id

Now create the load_lga.php file
in this file you first GET the "id" variable that is coming in
$id = $_GET("id";
That is the selected state.
Now create another <select> tag
Then run a query to select all from lgas where state = $id
Populate the <options> tag with the result.
Remember to echo the entire <select> tag and its <option> tags out so the jquery ajax() can pick it and display it where you want it to.


I'm sorry if this looks far from simple for you but its one of the right ways to get it done. I think you should learn the basics to get this to work. Once you learn the basics, you'll see its actually a simple solution.

Thanks brother!

Actually like you said, it really far from simple for someone like me and also I'm not just sitting down I'm still learning just that there's a need for this now.

Though, as I was going through my THEME files I came across these codes I think it may have something to do with my problem now just maybe but I believe you can put me through.

These are the codes:

<label for="country">Country</label>

<select id="country" class="show-menu-arrow selectpicker" name="coun">

<option value="">-</option>

<?php

$args=array(

'post_type' => 'Property',

'posts_per_page' => -1,

);

$i = 0;

$locations = array();

$wp_query=new WP_Query($args);

while($wp_query->have_posts()):$wp_query->the_post();

?>

<?php

$value = get_post_meta(get_the_ID(),'_cmb_pro_country', true);

if (!in_array($value, $locations) && $value != '') {

$locations[$i] = $value;

?>

<option value="<?php echo get_post_meta(get_the_ID(),'_cmb_pro_country', true);?>"><?php echo get_post_meta(get_the_ID(),'_cmb_pro_country', true);?></option>

<?php } ?>

<?php $i++; ?>

<?php endwhile;?>

</select>

<label for="location">Location</label>

<select id="location" class="show-menu-arrow selectpicker" name="location">

<option value="">-</option>

<?php

$args=array(

'post_type' => 'Property',

'posts_per_page' => -1,

);

$i = 0;

$locations = array();

$wp_query=new WP_Query($args);

while($wp_query->have_posts()):$wp_query->the_post();

?>

<?php

$value = get_post_meta(get_the_ID(),'_cmb_pro_location', true);

if (!in_array($value, $locations) && $value != '') {

$locations[$i] = $value;

?>

<option value="<?php echo get_post_meta(get_the_ID(),'_cmb_pro_location', true);?>"><?php echo get_post_meta(get_the_ID(),'_cmb_pro_location', true);?></option>

<?php }

$i++;

endwhile;?>

</select>

Please does it relate with what you're trying to tell me to do?

If the answer is YES! Please under the OPTION TAG what do I need to fill at the VALUE space for both COUNTRY and LOCATION?

If the answer is NO! Please how can I go further from here to achieve what I want?

Thanks once again.

JMAN05:
The questions were not for you,

Must the question direct to me before I answer

but if u are interested, give simple answers to those questions esp the one about whether Jesus skipped the name when he read OT book.

Very funny, typical JWs indeed.

Now no room for you again in the NT the only excuse you people have is the OT. SMH...

And I wonder why Jesus who could have used the name in the OT failed to use it nor teach His followers to use it in the NT

Anyway, Jesus can't skip the name while reading the OT but read it in any language the book was written.

Now did Jesus use the actual PRONUNCIATION of the name or the one being used at time?

Relax ur pride. Believe me, you know little abt this subject.

And this is coming from the person who has never refuted any of my questions on this thread.

Justjyde:
Then stop wasting everyone's time. Go and learn. You have html and javascript here. At least you should know that were there is no PHP, you cannot expect a PHP behaviour. Go and learn then you will become proficient. Who says you have to be a guru?

Bro. don't be upset with me.

I have to explain myself better so that you can get my point.

I know those codes were html and Javascript that's why I have to come up with the second point to make it clearer.

Please can you just use that example to help me on how it will be if I was to write it in PHP?

Lastly, I'm actually on tutorial but I need this urgently.

Thanks for the help!

JMAN05:
You believe he is a funny scholar? Really?

Whereas your organization also MOCKED him...