Malvisguy212's Posts
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(1) Both Hindu and Muslim male devotees are required to shave their heads during their pilgrimage. (2) And similar to their Hindu counterparts, male Muslim pilgrims are also required to dress in a garment consisting of two sheets of white cloth. This type of garment is known as Dhoti in Hinduism. (3) Just as the worshippers of Shiva observe a rite in which they walk around their object of reverence seven times,Muslim pilgrims also walk around the Ka’ba seven times. (4) Both their objects of reverence are Black Stones. In Hinduism, the Black Stone is known as Shiva lingam. (5) While Hindus drink water from the Ganga River as part of the sacred rites in their worship of Shiva, Muslims drink from the Well of Zamzam during the Hajj. (6) Additionally, the Crescent moon, which is associated with the Hindu deity Shiva, is also a symbol for Islam. In the Hindu portrayal of the Shiva symbol, the crescent moon is always painted across his forehead. Moreover, in every portrayal of Shiva, there is always a depiction of a snake curled around his neck. Weirdly, in pre-Islamic times, Allah is supposed to have sent a snake to guard the treasures of the Ka’ba. |
Rilwayne001:keep on deceiving your self ye ignorant muslims. BEFORE islam came , the pagan has been doing safa and marwa long, islam copy it from the pagan: Sahih Bukhari, Volume 6, Book 60, Number 23: Narrated By ‘Asim bin Sulaiman: I asked Anas bin Malik about Safa and Marwa (i.e. two mountains at Mecca). Anas replied, “We used to consider (i.e. going around) them a custom of the Pre-Islamic period of Ignorance, SO WHEN ISLAM ,WE GAVE UP GOING AROUND THEM. Then Allah revealed, ‘Verily, Safa and Marwa (i.e. two mountains at Mecca) are among the Symbols of Allah. So it is not harmful of those who perform the Hajj of the House (of Allah) or perform the Umra to ambulate (Tawaf) between them.’” ( Surah 2:158) [End of Quote] Clearly written, the people who live during muhammed knows before islam came the pagan has being doing it, muhammed had to reassure his followers with another lying revelation: Surah 2:158: “Lo! (the mountains) As- Safa and Al-Marwah are among the indications of Allah. It is therefore NO SIN FOR HIM WHO IS ON PILGRIMAGE to the House (of Allah) or visiteth it, to go around them ( AS THE PAGAN CUSTOM IS ).” (Pickthall) This verse explained everything why islam performed the ritual.A BLIND MAN CANNOT LEAD A BLIND MAN , THEY BOTH WILL FALL INTO A DICH. |
Demmzy15:can you paste the answer to the question ? If you cannot, don't quote me. |
McSterling: malvisguy212: McSterling: |
frosbel:the virgin birth is not a myth, God plans of salvation begins long before christ was born, go and do more study on the Passover, the Passover revealed Jesus christ. The Passover lamb was to be a "male without DEFECTS," which is the same description given to Jesus, which indicate the virgin birth, christ was born without defects: Exodus 12:5 The animals you choose must be year-old males without DEFECT, and you may take them from the sheep or the goats. I hope you know what this mean ?which prophet is without defect? On many occasion, bible say Jesus is sinless. If you called this a coincidence, then what about this ? This is How they are to ate the Passover lamb: Exodus 12:46 "It must be eaten inside one house; take none of the meat outside the house. DO NOT BREAK ANY OF THE BONES. And this is the proved Jesus is the Passover lamb : John 19:32, 33, 36 The soldiers therefore came, and broke the legs of the first man, and of the other man who was crucified with Him; but coming to Jesus, when they saw that He was already dead, they did NOT BREAK HIS LEGS ;... For these things came to pass, that the Scripture might be fulfilled, "NOT A BONE of Him shall be broken." Bottomline!! Jesus is the Passover lamb who is without DEFECT , I advice you to do more study on the Passover. @op By the virtue of the marriage, Joseph become the legal father of Jesus and not the biological father,matthew trace his lagal line, matthew begins with Abraham: read it here http://biblia.com/bible/nasb95/Matt%201.1-17 And luke trace his biological line and it was in luke Jesus is called the son of God http://biblia.com/bible/nasb95/Luke%203.23-38 Note: women are not added in geanology only men. Jesus being the legal father of Joseph mean he bypass the curse of Jeconiah in Jeremiah 22:24-30, read it here: http://biblia.com/bible/nasb95/Jer%2022.24-30 On the other hand, Luke, writing for Gentile readers, carries his ancestral list back to Adam, the progenitor of both Jews and Gentiles, in order to prove Christ to be the Saviour of both. Matthew gives the direct descent, from Abraham to Jesus, whereas Luke presents it in reverse order, from Jesus back to Adam. Matthew, writing primarily an apologetic to Jews proving Jesus to be the Messiah, wanted to show Jesus’ legal right to the throne of David.Therefore his genealogy begins with Abraham and goes through David and his son Solomon to Jesus’ legal father, Joseph. On the other hand, Luke is writing primarily to Gentiles and the world and, therefore, wants to show Jesus’ physical lineage as the perfect man. So he traces Mary’s line back to Adam through Heli, Mary’s father- the father-in-law of Joseph--and on through David’s son Nathan. Peace!! |
Rilwayne001:good of you to paste that thread, NONE of your brothers answer the op question, this is from the thread you past : By blenble: can u hear urself? Its like u dnt get d point! imagine americans as idol worshippers and they circle and bow down to mt everest evry months and u come with a religion u claimed to b true and conquer america...what is d best thing for u to do with those mountains? YOU ARE SUPPOSE TO DESTROY THEM! BT u nw say,no dnt destroy dem,lets b doing d same thing-circling,bowing and worshiping d mountain bt to honour our god in d life of our great great great...grand mother! Kai,does dt make sense! THIS IS ONE OF THE REASON Y I ALWAYS SAY WE ARE NOT SERVING THE SAME GOD! THE GOD OF THE BIBLE WILL NEVER ALLOW THAT! This is why u muslims will never understand why God instructs the israel in d OT to always destroy all pagan countries and THEIR gods====not bcus of anything or that God hates dem,bt bcus God does nt want them to start worship THEM and later claim they are worshiping HIM.GOD IS TOO HOLY TO BE WORSHIPPED D SAME WAY IDOLS WERE WORSHIPPED!(like u guys are doing). We have so many of that in d Bible bt u ppl will nt understand.TOTAL DESTRUCTION OF THOSE IDOLS! D fact that its been a way of worshiping idol shld get u thinking! How will u b circling d SAME mountain some idol wrshippers were circling, AND U SAY U ARE WORSHIPPING D TRUE GOD?? What abt d demons in those mountain,huh? CNT U HONOUR ISMAIL MUM WITH SOMETHING ELSE? I AM NT SURPRISED THOUGH! THE SAME MOUNTAIN?? Guy think! SMH Perfect example!!! |
Rilwayne001:Adam was created without the agency of a human father or mother because, as the first man on earth, he could not have had earthly parents. Such an act of creation was necessary at the beginning of the world of mankind. Someone had to be created first. But in the case of Jesus, he was born without a human father when God’s natural process of procreation had long been in existence. Here we see God interrupting the course of nature,and overriding the very laws of procreation that he had himself established, in order that Christ might thus have a virgin-birth. Why? Surely such an act could not have been without meaning. It points to the profound truth that Jesus Christ held a very special relationship with the One who was the architect of this miraculous conception a relationship that is shared by no other prophet. You keep on repeating this RUBBISH!!! In every thread you followed, can you mention the traditions were women are name in geanology ?ONLY men are name that why luke name Joseph as the LEGAL father of Jesus and NOT the biological father. |
Demmzy15:nonsense!!! How many time muslims will give this lame excuse? There is nothing to argued about unless you know more than muhammed. |
smartesboys:how is this an answer to the op question ? |
Reiyvinn:after Jesus took john James and peter then he say those word to them ,but the prophecy was directed to john, peter and James were given a glimpse of christ second coming glory and in revelation john was given the vision of christ judging the world. Out of curiosity, are you a jehovah witness before converting to atheists ? |
Demmzy15:no one abuse her ? The viewers should view the thread and see how you guys insulted her. If you cannot copy your same answer and paste it here , then you are not being truthful, how many second will it take you to do it? Just few. |
Demmzy15:nonsense, all what you guys deed was to insult her without answering her question, go and copy your answer and reply it here. Let see. |
Reiyvinn "Truly I say to you, there are some of those who are standing here who shall not taste death until they see the Son of Man coming in His kingdom." ( Matthew 16:28) This prophecy was directed to john , The prophecy was actually fulfilled in its entirety in the late first century. If you read the book of Revelation, you will see that John, the apostle to whom the prophecy was directed, saw Jesus coming in His glory to establish His kingdom: Revelation 21:2 I saw the Holy City, the new Jerusalem, coming down out of heaven from God, prepared as a bride beautifully dressed for her husband. This is what the entire book of revelation describes - the second coming of Jesus Christ. John saw it all in a vision, as it will happen. The prophecy was fulfilled! The prophecy does not say that John would not die before Christ returned. It said that he would not die before seeing the return of Jesus Christ. What is awesome about the vision reported by John is that he did not understand what he was seeing, but reported it as he saw it. As such, he includes descriptions of a giant meteor collision with the earth, battles with mechanized machines that sound like tanks, and huge armies(200,000,000 men), which would not even be possible until at least the 20th century. *modified* I urged every christians brothers and sisters to read this thread, very interesting concerning the end of days. https://www.nairaland.com/1853536/end-days-end-harvest |
Demmzy15: malvisguy212: Demmzy15: |
Muhammed is a self proclaim prophet , their is NO way God will send a sinner as a prophet , a killer ,the quran its self even indicate muhammed is a false prophet: Qur-an 69:44-46 And if he had fabricated against Us some of the sayings, We would certainly have seized him by the right hand, then We would certainly have cut off his AORTA. [Shakir] Here the quran say if muhammed had fabricated false revelation, Allah will cut of his aorta, let's look at the manner of muhammed death: Sunan Abu Dawud 4449 Umm Bishr said to the Prophet during the sickness of WHICH HE DIED , "What do you think about your illness, Apostle of Allah? I do not think about the illness of my son except the POISONED sheep of which he had eaten with you at Khaibar." The Prophet said, "And I do not think about my illness except that. This is the time when it cut off my AORTA." There's that aorta again.what evidence do we need apart from this to proved muhammed is a false prophet ? I created a thread about this , but the moderator wast no time in deleting it , here are more evidence,if the above hadith ,muslims disagree with it, here is another autheintic hadith: Sahih al-Bukhari 4428 The Prophet in his ailment in WHICH HE DIED , used to say, "O Aishah! I still feel the pain caused by the food I ate at Khaibar, and at this time, I feel as if my AORTA is being cut from that poison." The aorta again "which he died" |
Presbulg:come in this thread and take the challenge for the quran https://www.nairaland.com/2381817/contradictions-analyzed-bible-quran |
ShayGirl:First, John was nearer to the cross and probably heard things the others didn't. John is referred to in scripture as the disciple that Jesus loved (John 13:23). Notice he is mentioned as being near the cross of Jesus. John 19:25 Near the cross of Jesus stood his mother, his mother's sister, Mary the wife of Cleophas, and Mary Magdalene. When Jesus saw his mother there, and the disciple whom he loved standing nearby, he said to his mother, "Dear woman, here is your son," and to the disciple, "Here is your mother." From that time on, this disciple took her into his home." Notice, in the verse above, Jesus is speaking only to Mary and John who are directly below the cross. When John recounts the events at the cross, he's focusing on what was said privately to him at the foot of the cross and what's said to those standing close by - the plea of thirst, the statement of completion, and the turning over of responsibility for Jesus' mother to John. Matthew focused on the words Jesus said "in a loud voice" to all that were there (the crowd). The Last thing Matthew heard was "My god, my God, why hast thou forsaken me? Then a loud cry before giving up the ghost. Luke hears the same loud cry that Matthew mentions, but also hears after that, probably because he's closer, "Father, unto thy hands I commend my spirit". It makes sense that he would say "My God, My God..." in a louder voice than he would say his last words commending his spirit into the father's hands. When Jesus asked for something to drink, he was speaking to those below the cross where John was standing. John heard what the others farther back heard, but also heard the dialogue about asking the people near the cross for water and his quieter statement, "It is finished". Here are the three accounts put together: "And about the ninth hour Jesus cried with a loud voice, saying, 'Eli, eli, lama sabachthani?' that is to say, 'My God, my God, why hast thou forsaken me?'....Jesus, when he had cried again with a loud voice said , 'Father, unto thy hands I commend my spirit:' (notice the cry with a loud voice is separated from Jesus commending His spirit, probably quieter), then he said softly, 'It is finished:' and he bowed his head, and gave up the ghost." |
Presbulg:after I provide bible verse you are still asking for source? 2 Samuel 21:18 But the king took Armoni and Mephibosheth, the two sons of Aiah's daughter Rizpah, whom she had borne to Saul, together with the five sons of Saul's daughter Merab, whom she had borne to Adriel son of Barzillai the Meholathite. |
ShayGirl:This does not show a contradiction any more than two witnesses to an accident at an intersection will come up with two different scenarios of that accident, depending on where they stood. Neither witness would be incorrect, as they describe the event from a different perspective. Luke was not a witness to the event, and so is dependent on those who were there. John was a witness. What they are both relating, however, is that at the end Jesus gave himself up to death. It could be said that Luke used the last words that he felt were necessary for his gospel account, which concentrated on the humanity of Christ (noted in the earlier question), while John, as well as quoting the last words of Jesus, was interested in the fulfilment of the salvific message, and so quoted the last phrase “it is finished”. John 17:4 records Jesus’ prayer to the Father in the light of Christ’s forthcoming crucifixion, stating that He had completed the work of revelation (John 1:18), and since revelation is a particular stress of the Gospel of John, and the cross is the consummation of that commission (John 3:16), it is natural that this Gospel should centre on tetelestai. At any rate, if Jesus said ‘It is finished; Father into your hands I commit my spirit’ or vice versa, it would be quite in order to record either clause of this sentence, his last words. Luke-Acts reaches its conclusion without any climax, because the continuing ministry of the exalted Christ through the Holy Spirit and the Church has no ending prior to the Parousia, and to record tetelestai might have undermined this emphasis, or it could have been taken the wrong way. At any rate, no contradiction is involved; purely a distinction of emphasis. |
sportsmaster:God bless you my Good friend, that is the points. |
OJODEL10:still waiting for Islamic defence. Rilwayne001 and co. |
Rilwayne001:read the context and see if you are correct or wrong. |
Rilwayne001:continue your distraction, one thing for sure you cannot defend muhammed or Allah here https://www.nairaland.com/2381817/contradictions-analyzed-bible-quran https://www.nairaland.com/2457757/deceptive-deity https://www.nairaland.com/2455498/pagan-holiday https://www.nairaland.com/2408973/explanation-wanted The funny thing is that All your copy and paste proved what I've explained in the op. Soo continue your distractions. |
Rilwayne001:They where adopted children, from Merab, Saul's daughter (1 Samuel 18:19), the wife of Adriel, the son of Barzillai the Meholathite. |
Rilwayne001:Proverbs has much to say about fools. They despise wisdom (Proverbs 1:7, 22, 10:21, 23:9); they are right in their own eyes (Proverbs 12:15); they are deceitful (Proverbs 14: and scornful(Proverbs 10:23, 14:9). The wise are also given instruction on how to deal with fools in Proverbs. Instructing a fool is pointless because his speech is full of foolishness ( Proverbs 15:2, 14) and he does not want wisdom and understanding ( Proverbs 18:2). The futility of trying to impart wisdom to a fool is the basis of Proverbs 26:4-5, which tell us how to answer a fool. These seemingly contradictory verses are actually a common form of parallelism found in the Old Testament, where one idea builds upon another. Verse 4 warns against arguing with a fool on his own terms, lest we stoop to his level and become as foolish as he is. Because he despises wisdom and correction, the fool will not listen to wise reason and will try to draw us into his type of argument, whether it is by using deceit, scoffing at our wisdom, or becoming angry and abusive. If we allow him to draw us into this type of discourse, we are answering him “according to his folly” in the sense of becoming like him. The phrase “according to his folly” in verse 5, on the other hand, tells us that there are times when a fool has to be addressed so that his foolishness will not go unchallenged. In this sense answering him according to his folly means to expose the foolishness of his words, rebuking him on the basis of his folly so he will see the idiocy of his words and reasoning. Our “answer” in this case is to be one of reproof, showing him the truth so he might see the foolishness of his words in the light of reason. Even though he will most likely despise and reject the wisdom offered to him, we are to make the attempt, both for the sake of the truth which is always to be declared, and for the sake of those listening, that they may see the difference between wisdom and folly and be instructed. Whether we use the principle of verse 4 and deal with a fool by ignoring him, or obey verse 5 and reprove a fool depends on the situation. In matters of insignificance, it’s probably better to disregard him. In more important areas, such as when a fool denies the existence of God ( Psalm 14:1), verse 5 tells us to respond to his foolishness with words of rebuke and instruction. To let a fool speak his nonsense without reproof encourages him to remain wise in his own eyes and possibly gives credibility to his folly in the eyes of others. In short, in negligible issues we should just ignore fools, but in issues that matter, they must be dealt with so that credence will not be given to what they say. http://www.gotquestions.org/Proverbs-26-4-5.html |
Rilwayne001 I challenge you to defend your quran here , but you couldn't, https://www.nairaland.com/2381817/contradictions-analyzed-bible-quran All your muslims brothers are afraid of the thread. |
Rilwayne001:1. There is a difference between a trial and a temptation, although both come from the same Greek word peirasmos. They are often used INTERCHANGEABLE though. After all, temptation is a trial (of faith), and every trial is a temptation (to grumble). When the word appears in the New Testament the CONTEXT helps us to see which interpretation is meant. The difference between trial and temptation is. temptation: "Do this pleasant thing and do not let yourself be hindered by the fact that it is wrong," whereas trial says, "Do this good and noble thing, and do not let yourself be hindered by the fact that it is painful". 2.He spreads out the northern skies over empty space; he suspends the earth over nothing. ( Job 26:7) He wraps up the waters in his clouds, yet the clouds do not burst under their weight. ( Job 26: ![]() He covers the face of the full moon, spreading his clouds over it. ( Job 26:9) He marks out the horizon on the face of the waters for a boundary between light and darkness. ( Job 26:10) The pillars of the heavens quake, aghast at his rebuke. ( Job 26:11) As one can see, Job comes up with some rather remarkable insights into the nature of the earth. He says that the earth is suspended over nothing and that the clouds carry water and have weight, yet do not fall to earth. In the context of the passage, it is clear that the "pillars" are the mountains, which quake at God's rebuke. Whereas the Quran says the earth is like a carpet that is held in place by the heavy mountains, described as being like tent pegs, so that it won't move or shake, the Bible associates the mountains with shaking and says that, instead of placing the mountains on the earth, God caused the mountains to rise up. So, it is pretty obvious that these pillars aren't holding anything up, but are merely free-standing pillars, similar to those found in Solomon's Temple 3.Jehoachin's father, Madehim, became an unofficial co-ruler at the age of eight to train him! This was followed with Jehoachin becoming officially the king at his father's death at 18 years of age! |
Jeffboi:Glory to our Father and His son Jesus christ. Lalasticala ishilove. Last week Sunday, you guys put a thread about bible contradiction in the homepage, pleased see this thread as the rebuttal, put it to front-page. Thank you and God bless. |
saintneo:spread the word to the world, until the whole world hered. |
Ahmed4002:I do not reply you because you type word I do not understand. |
Cc lalasticala ishilove OAM4J |
Many times you will see some detractor bring out a list of so-called contradictions. There are many online and some are quite long. All go to great lengths to try and prove that the Bible is filled with errors. However, if one is looking at these passages objectively, you will find it is the list maker who is being dishonest in his approach. That's because they have chosen to ignore the context in which the statement. You see,CONTEXT is really the thing that determines what the speaker is trying to convey for any passage. If I were to say "I missed my family today" you may assume that I meant I felt a longing to be with my family when I couldn't. However, if I put the sentence in this context: "I missed my family. It looks like they left five minutes before I arrived." then the meaning of the statement changes dramatically. Finally, if the context is "We had a great time at the picnic. I hit all my friends with water balloons. I missed my family." then we have another meaning. Let's extend this idea to two statements. If I were to tell a co-worker on Monday "I had some good family time at the picnic", then later tell someone else "I missed my family" you might think this is a contradiction, but since the context for the second sentence may be understood in a different manner, you can quickly see that the contradiction doesn't exist. Most of the contradiction fell into this error,the critics ignore the LARGE context. EXAMPLE 1: Exodus 32:14 vs. Numbers 23:19 - Does God Repent? Exodus 32:14 says "the Lord repented of the evil which he thought to do" VS. Numbers 23:19 says God does not repent: ANSWER: God is supposed to be all good and all knowing, so why would such a God change His mind or repent of something He has decided to do? This is the challenge offered above. Actually, Numbers 23:19 is describing this very aspect of God. God, speaking through Balaam, explains His nature to the pagan king Balak and says, "God is not a man, that he should lie, Neither the son of man, that he should repent: Hath he said, and will he not do it? Or hath he spoken, and will he not make it good?" However, Exodus 32:14 is a completely different context. God is speaking with Moses and telling him that the children of Israel are sinning and their sins are putting them in danger of being judged. God then says "Let Me alone, that My anger may burn against them and that I may destroy them; and I will make of you a great nation." Now, God had previously promised that He would deliver the nation of Israel out of the bondage of Egypt and into the Promised Land. NOTICE how He says "Let me alone." This was a test for Moses. God wanted to see if Moses would intercede for the people and provide a way of escape for them. Moses did as he should have and God didn't destroy Israel. In writing this incident, Moses chose to use dramatic language to reflect the seriousness of the situation. By saying "God changed His mind" or "God repented", Moses employs what is known as an anthropomorphism - ascribing human qualities to God - to make his point. God promised that He would deliver Israel and He did. The "changing of mind" wasn't a change at all - God made good on his promise. EXAMPLE 2: Mark 15:25 vs. John 19:14-15 - The Time of the Crucifixion Mark 15:25 Jesus was crucified at the THIRD HOUR VS. John 19:14-15 says the SIXTH HOUR. ANSWER: Mark figures the time by Jewish reckoning, where the day would start at sundown and be broken into segments. We still see this today as observant Jews start their observance of the Sabbath at sundown. This would make the third hour to be about noon. The Romans reckoned their time differently and their segments were longer. Ancient Roman sundials show that the daylight hours were divided into twelve equal segments, or hours. However, there were only two major segments, daytime and nighttime, with the hours beginning at sunrise and counted until sunset. Therefore, this makes the sixth hour in Roman time also about noon. John's audience was the GENTILE church, so John uses Roman time throughout His Gospel. EXAMPLE 3: If God is full of love, why did he destroy nations? ANSWER: He destroyed them out of love for the people. Just like the world interceded and destroyed Nazi Germany to protect the people of the world from violence, God did likewise. God destroyed the land in the time of Noah because of the violence it was filled with (Genesis 6:13). God destroyed Sodom and Gomorra because of the violence that it was filled with (Genesis 13:13), and the fact that there was not one righteous man living there (Genesis 18:16-25). He threatened to destroy Nineveh because of the violence in their land (Jonah 3: , but Nineveh changed their ways and was spared (verse 10). God destroyed Jerusalem because the city was full of violence (Ezekiel 7:23-25). God could not find one righteous man in Israel, so he had to destroy it to save the people from their misery (Ezekiel 22:29-31). If God would have found even one man that sought God's Truth,God would have pardoned it (Jeremiah 5:1). Peace. |
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and scornful