₦airaland Forum

Primesky:
I will strongly disagree with you dear. Plants have only bodies. Animals have bodies and souls. Man is higher, he has body, soul and his own spirit, which is different from the Spirit of life which gives him life.

Man is primarily a Spirit who has a soul and dwells in a body. Don't get confused please.

You're confusing the spirit of God and man, with the spirit of life. Let's look at the application.

The Hebrew word, Ruwach is used to designate God’s Spirit in the Old Testament, and sometimes is also used to designate man’s spirit. However, when God breathed life into the first man Adam, a different word is used, which is nashamah. This word is used in association with giving life to a human soul, like wise animal souls. It is the spirit of life.

When God created the first Adam, He breathed into him the “breath of life” and Adam became a living soul (Genesis 2:7).

And so it is written, the first Adam was made a living soul. The last Adam was made a quickening - (Greek, zoopoieo- life giving-) Spirit - I Corinthians 15:45.
For as the Father has life in Himself: so hath He given to the Son to have life in Himself - John 5:26.

Jesus was not created, He was begotten!. From your point of view, I see you as one of those who don't believe in the afterlife, am I correct?.

U said "Jesus was not created. He was begotten". Primesky ,U are confused. Man is the image of God,same as Jesus is the image of the same God. He is the firstborn of creation. Colossians 1:15. Pls, quarrel with your Bible. Trinity is built on the falsified insertion of "I am" into Hebrew scriptures(Exodus 3:14. Rather, " I will become what will become.". Every Jew or Israeli knows "I am" is a fraud.) The term "I am" does not exist in Hebrew because their language has no present tense.
Animals & man have the breath of life which the Bible refers to as "spirit".(Eccl3:18-21. James2:26. Ps104:29).It's not rocket science. (the context determines the meaning. At times, the term 'spirit' can also refers to emotions of anger, anxiety or joy. eg my spirit is anxious. Its does not mean that a separate invisible entity in me is anxious. ). The story of Lazarus & rich man is a parable. It NEVER happened in real life. Its a lesson to teach us that no condition is permanent. Jesus said Abraham, David etc never went to heaven. Acts2:31-34. John 3:13. Is Christ a liar? He said the dead are in the grave awaiting the resurrection ( John 5:28,29. Acts24:15. John11:11-14,20-39, Martha confirmed it,she told Jesus, "I know he (Lazarus) will rise in the resurrection on the last day." God's kingdom is a government ruled by king Jesus. Have U ever seen a government where every citizen occupied the throne? Therefore, Christ the king has 144,000 co-rulers in heaven to rule with him for 1000 years. Christ rulership would benefit millions of righteous,earthly citizens of Gods kingdom . (Daniel 2:44. 2pet3:13. Rev14:1-3. Rev 20:4,5. Matt5:3,5.). Only God chooses who goes to heaven or live forever on the forthcoming paradise earth.

PastorAIO:
In Matthew 9:13 he quotes the septuagint.

He does it again in Matt 12:7. So at least you know that the first time wasn't just a mistake.

In Matthew 13: 14-15 He quotes septuagint again.

In matthew 21:16 he does so again.

Look these up, what the Hebrew bible says is quite different from what Jesus quotes. What Jesus quotes is the Septuagint version.

Oga, the Hebrew scriptures existed before the Septuagint. Their scrolls were often kept in the synagogues. In these bible verses of Matthew, U referred above, Jesus himself paraphrased what he learnt from the Hebrew scriptures . For instance, Hosea6:6 reads: "For I desire mercy, not sacrifice ,& acknowledgement of God rather than burnt offerings".. Matt9:13 reads " but go & learn what this means: "I desire mercy,not sacrifice". For I have not come to call the righteous but sinners'.(Similar words in matt 12:7).
When U read matt 13:14,15 ,it's more like a direct quote of Isaiah 6:9,10.
But Matt21:16 quoted Psalms 8:2 in part. Jesus done first read am & learn am for Hebrew scriptures b4 he talk am for the Septuagint. Shalom. Na the cover versions of the Hebrew Scriptures naim dey for the Septuagint

PastorAIO:
I never said that it was extinct or non existent. I said the language spoken was Aramaic not Hebrew. Just like the language spoken in the USA is English, yes.


Now that you're here though, I'm curious that you responded this my quip about which language was actually spoken in Palestine. But you ignored the weightier matter of whether the Jews understood the name of God as 'I Am' which is purely present tense. Sir, what is your response to that?

... Well, i just saw this post now...
From time immemorial, the Jews rejected "I am" (even till tomorrow) because know its a man made fallacy that has no connection to the name of God just as they too rejected the Trinity. However, there exists apostates in their midst who would fall for any man made philosophy they fancy.

PastorAIO:
Take the analogy further. If an entire religion is then formed on the basis of that Greek translation and the founder of the religion himself quotes extensively from the Greek translation then ...

Nobody who disagrees with the Greek translation can also claim to be an adherent of the religion or a followers of the founder of the religion.

Jesus is the founder of Christianity, a religion based on the Septuagint. If you don't like the Septuagint why are you lying that you are a follower of Jesus.

LIES &FALSEHOOD!
All these your long epistle are half hearted measures at best. Where & when did Jesus "quotes extensively from the Greek translation"?
Rather, Jesus extensively quoted the Hebrew scriptures for instance, in Matt4:4 he quoted Deut8:3. In John 10:34 he quoted Psalms 82:6 etc. He never twisted the word of God unlike U guys that gave endorsed the falsified the word.
Contrary to your claim, those who disagree with the Greek translation of the corrupted "I am" inserted into Hebrew are far more honest than the multitude who accepted the fallacy U have been putting up excuses to defend.
Today, there are multiple extant manuscripts far older than the Septuagint & as a result the falsified insertion of "I am" & other errors has been exposed. Pride ,ego & arrogance wey una get no go let una accept the truth.
God can never lie ( Hebrew 6:18. John17:17). Neither does HE accept Jewish fable & myths ("I am" that His word condemned in very strong terms ( Titus 1:13,14. 2Thess1:9-11. Rom1:25).
PastorA10, believe what U wanna believe.. but at your own risk.
Nairalanders, following this thread,as U can see (& going by what has been confirmed by Pastor A10) , the fact. is that the Trinity fallacy is built on the falsified insertion of the term "I am" (not a Hebrew word ) into Hebrew Old testament of the Greek Septuagint.
Statement of fact:Trinity is a man made fallacy, not taught by Jesus Christ or his followers, except U wanna twist the Bible to get your answer b4 the question.
PastorA10, thanks for your time. I'm done with U. Shalom.

PastorAIO:
Take the analogy further. If an entire religion is then formed on the basis of that Greek translation and the founder of the religion himself quotes extensively from the Greek translation then ...

Nobody who disagrees with the Greek translation can also claim to be an adherent of the religion or a followers of the founder of the religion.

Jesus is the founder of Christianity, a religion based on the Septuagint. If you don't like the Septuagint why are you lying that you are a follower of Jesus.

LIES &FALSEHOOD!
All these your long epistle are half hearted measures at best. Where & when did Jesus "quotes extensively from the Greek translation"?
Rather, Jesus extensively quoted the Hebrew scriptures for instance, in Matt4:4 he quoted Deut8:3. In John 10:34 he quoted Psalms 82:6 etc.

PastorAIO:
Did you realise that the language spoken by Jews in Palestine at the time of Jesus was in fact Aramaic and not Hebrew.

Half truth !! At that time, Hebrew was not the official language of the day but it was never extinct or non existent. The language dey kampe. It's like U saying that English is the language spoken in USA,not Spanish. That's a smooth lie.

Primesky:
Oh wow, interesting!. So in a bid to discredit me, you removed breath and put spirit, hahaha... Oh sorry, maybe there's another version of bible you're using. But I've tried to see. This is what I found below.

Psalms 104:29- KJV. Thou hidest thy face, they are troubled: thou takest away their breath, [/b]they die, and return to their dust.

Psalm 104 Vs 29 (NIV) When you hide your face,
they are terrified;
[b]when you take away their breath,
they die and return to the dust.

Psalm 104 :29 7(NLT) But if you turn away from them, they panic. When you take away their breath, they die and turn again to dust.

Psalm 104:29 (Amp) You hide Your face, they are dismayed; You take away their breath, they die And return to their dust.

Are you going to now tell me spirit and breath are the same?. Another failed attempt at denying trinity

For your information, animals don't have both souls and spirits as men do because they were not created in the image of God. They have souls but not spirit. Only man has both body, soul and spirit. So stop trying so hard to hide the truth by quoting what I don't know.

U said "animals don't have souls & spirit" .Na big lie ooo. The spirit refers to d breathe of life. Spirit is life-giving. (Eccl3 :19,20. James 2:26).. U guys confuse yourselves about understanding of the phrase. "image of God". It simply means that only Adam possessed God-given powers of superior intelligence (which other animals don't have.) for man to have dominion over other animals. ( Gen1:26-28). Seth was in the likeness of Adam ,his father. (Gen5:3).
(Adam was in the image of God just as Jesus was in the image of the invisible God. Therefore, Jesus is the first born of creation. Colossians1:15. He was created. Yes !!!)
Man is never a spirit because "flesh & blood can not inherit the kingdom of God in heaven. Flesh(man) gives birth to flesh(man). Spirit gives birth to spirit "(john3 :5,6. 1Cor15: 40. Man is a fleshly entity. Angels are spirit entities. Pls don't get it twisted.

benjibabs:
@the bold portion - Which version of the bible are you reading? see below:

John 10:30 King James Version (KJV)
30 I and my Father are one.

Benjibabs ,in the same manner that Jesus & his disciples are one (john17:11,,21) just as husband & wife are one (matt19:4-6). Can two walk together (in unity) unless they agree? Amos 3:3.

PastorAIO:
Let me clear it up for other readers. I know that this OneJ guy is a lost cause given over to deceit and won't listen to this history.


The early Christians and most Jews around the time of Jesus did not read the bible in Hebrew and hadn't read it in Hebrew for about 300 years.
You see, around the 3th century BCE the Hebrew bible was translated into Greek and this translation was called the Septuagint. Google Septuagint.

The early christians wrote the new testament in Greek and when they made reference to the Old testament they clearly made reference to the greek version of the old testament, the Septuagint.

So in order to know how the early christians understood Exodus 3:14 we have to look at the Septuagint version which is the version that they read and not the Hebrew version. So while the Hebrew language may not have obvious ways of expressing the present tense the Greek of the septuagint did so very clearly.

How does the Septuagint translate Ehyer Asher Ehyer? They translate it as: Ego Eimi ho on.

Yes that's right, the Earliest christians and possibly even Jesus himself read the septuagint and read Exodus 3:14 as Ego Eimi which is the Present Tense in Greek for 'To Be'. In other words: I Am


It doesn't matter whether this is an accurate translation or not for the student of Christianity. The important thing is that that is what the Christians read and accepted. And that is what they built their theology on.

Many Jews to this day still argue that Christianity is based on a mistranslation of the Hebrew bible. Another passage they like to critize is in Isaiah. Isaiah 7:14. .... And a Virgin shall conceive.

The actual Hebrew word that is used there is Almah. "An Almah shall conceive".

In actual fact 'Almah' is simply Hebrew for a Young woman. The real hebrew word for Virgin is Betulah.

However the Septuagint translated Almah into Greek as Virgin and that is where the christian doctrine of the virgin birth originated from because the Christian all read the Septuagint. Throughout the New Testament when they talk of the scriptures it is the Septuagint that they quote from consistently.





So the Conclusion:

All mister OneJ 's barking about the original hebrew is just a display of his lack of knowledge of Christianity, especially early christianity.

Early Christianity is based on the Septuagint which is a Greek manuscript and in the Septuagint Exodus 3:14 is translated as Ego Eimi Ho On. Which is totally present tense.




Mister OneJ would you like to try another move? I'm quite enjoying rebuffing your desperate attempts.

In your own words, "the early Christians & most Jews around the time of Christ did not read the Bible in Hebrew & hadn't read it in Hebrew for about 300 years"
If we are to believe the trash U typed above, the Jews them done forget Hebrew & bury their language finish sotay them no dey speak am & even read Hebrew Torah scroll for their synagogues again
(If na only Septuagint dey at that time, So, U mean say them troway all the Hebrew scrolls wey them take write the Septuagint too !!!! Hahahahaaaa. )
Also, since them no dey read or speak Hebrew for their homes & inside synagogue, " for over 300years" , them no know say "I am" no dey Hebrew language... (Oga Pastor, fafafa foul.. this your lie na ogidigan.. Hhmmmm! ).
Oga Pastor said "it doesn't matter whether this (Septuagint ) is an accurate translation or not for the student of Christianity..... & that is what they built their theology on".
For example, if U wrote a book in Yoruba & U gave permission to a Greek translator to publish a Greek version of your book. After the work is done, U later found out that in chapter 3 ,the content & meaning is very different & contradicts your original book, would U accept that & praise the work & recommend it to the general public ?
Any deviation from the Hebrew texts (the original source) ,God says it's Unacceptable.1Thes5:20,21. Rev22:18,19
Nairalanders, PastorA10 doesn't mind to propagate the theology built on falsehood & man made fallacy (trinity).
Indeed, by their fruits ye shall know them (Matt7:15-20) who deny that Jesus is the son of God. Even though God revealed that Jesus is the son of the Living God (Matt16:13-17. 1John4:15. 5:10) but them say na lie.

Primesky:
Please, people of God know the bible for yourselves, I don't understand what in the world is happening, even though Jesus said it. The fact that one is quoting the right scriptures doesn't make his/her assertions correct. Don't believe me if you will, but take hold of the bible, read it like never before, back to back as many times as possible, but ensure you have a solid relationship with God through Jesus Christ, that's the only way not to be confused or decieved. The trick and subtlety is too thin to easily discover. I rest my case on this here.

Primesky: was Adam existing in the spirit realm before God created him on earth? Where did Adam go when he died? Man is a soul. He is body (dust,flesh ) plus breathe of life,(spirit ). Gen2:7. James 2:26. Gen3:19, Eccl12:7. 3:19,20. Ps alm104:29. 146:3,4.
God gave man the revelation that Jesus Christ is the son of the living God. (Matt16:13-17. Rev1:1. John20:30,31. 1Cor11:3. John14:28. Mark 1:1.) It's not rocket science. Shalom.

In addition, followers of Christ & even the Jews themselves never said " I am that I am". It's not Hebrew language.
The actual,authentic Hebrew phrase they say (even till today) is "Ehyeh Asher Ehyeh" translated to English thus :" I shall become (prove to be) what I shall become (prove to be).
Na fake slogan "I am" wey no dey Hebrew language naim una take dey defend fallacy.
In conclusion, your Trinity is a man made fallacy. Take it or leave it.

In addition, followers of Christ & even the Jews themselves never said " I am that I am".That's not Hebrew language.

PastorAIO:
But the book of John was written in Greek and greek has present tense. Ego Eimi is present tense.

And as it happens, it is Ego Eimi that we are talking about not any hebrew word.


Out of interest then, what point were you trying to make when you quoted 2Sam2:20 about Asahel's statement?

Oga Pastor, In your own words, "it is grammatically incongruous that the reference is to the 'I am' at the burning bush "
.Oga, Pastor, U are so confused & so dishonest that U can't help it but contradict yourself. .Again, In your own words " there is the theologically significant use of "I am" that is used to make reference to Jehovah.... He declared his name to be "I am". He didn't say tell them that " I have been" sent you". After your initial denial, U mischievously linked together "I am" in Hebrew to "I am" in Greek. U lied sotayy U come get confusion transmission.
Hebrew language has no present tense. Therefore "I am" , is not a Hebrew word & can never have the same meaning with Greek Ego eimi.. Therefore ,your claim about John 8:58 is built on quicksand,very weak foundation. Besides, John 8:12-58, Jesus never said he is God. Rather, he said he spoke the message that God sent him & also gave proof that he is the son of God.

Oga,your sophistry is built on weak foundation. Hebrew language has no present tense "I am" eee no dey their language. Let's call a spade a spade . "Before Abraham was, I have been"

PastorAIO:
Nope, 'why ee dey pain me well well' is because in order to push your agenda you have twisted the words of Jesus. Jesus said 'I Am', he didn't say 'I have been'.

'I have been' is NOT and can never be a synonym for I am.

I have been is the Past participle

I AM is the present.

In any language the use of tenses are important and crucial for understanding meaning.





Furthermore, anybody reading the gospel of John will realise that of all the gospels John is unique for pushing the divinity of Jesus. He does it at the beginning of the book and all the way through, consistently.

If anything at all, most christian bibles have not conveyed the extent to which the gospel of John intended to identify Jesus with 'I Am'.

For example, most bibles mistranslate John 18:6.

The write 'I Am He' when in fact all Jesus said was 'I Am' and that was enough to make the disciples fall on their ass.

King James Bible
As soon then as he had said unto them, I am (he), they went backward, and fell to the ground.


Jesus never said 'I am He". The King James got it wrong. Jesus asked them who they were looking for and they answered 'Jesus of Nazareth'. And then Jesus responded: Ego Eimi.

New Heart English Bible got it right:

New Heart English Bible
When therefore he said to them, "I AM," they went backward, and fell to the ground.

[b]

PastorAIO:
Nope, 'why ee dey pain me well well' is because in order to push your agenda you have twisted the words of Jesus. Jesus said 'I Am', he didn't say 'I have been'.

'I have been' is NOT and can never be a synonym for I am.

I have been is the Past participle

I AM is the present.

In any language the use of tenses are important and crucial for understanding meaning.





Furthermore, anybody reading the gospel of John will realise that of all the gospels John is unique for pushing the divinity of Jesus. He does it at the beginning of the book and all the way through, consistently.

If anything at all, most christian bibles have not conveyed the extent to which the gospel of John intended to identify Jesus with 'I Am'.

For example, most bibles mistranslate John 18:6.

The write 'I Am He' when in fact all Jesus said was 'I Am' and that was enough to make the disciples fall on their ass.

King James Bible
As soon then as he had said unto them, I am (he), they went backward, and fell to the ground.


Jesus never said 'I am He". The King James got it wrong. Jesus asked them who they were looking for and they answered 'Jesus of Nazareth'. And then Jesus responded: Ego Eimi.

New Heart English Bible got it right:

New Heart English Bible
When therefore he said to them, "I AM," they went backward, and fell to the ground.

[/b]

PastorAIO:
Nope, 'why ee dey pain me well well' is because in order to push your agenda you have twisted the words of Jesus. Jesus said 'I Am', he didn't say 'I have been'.

'I have been' is NOT and can never be a synonym for I am.

I have been is the Past participle

I AM is the present.

In any language the use of tenses are important and crucial for understanding meaning.





Furthermore, anybody reading the gospel of John will realise that of all the gospels John is unique for pushing the divinity of Jesus. He does it at the beginning of the book and all the way through, consistently.

If anything at all, most christian bibles have not conveyed the extent to which the gospel of John intended to identify Jesus with 'I Am'.

For example, most bibles mistranslate John 18:6.

The write 'I Am He' when in fact all Jesus said was 'I Am' and that was enough to make the disciples fall on their ass.

King James Bible
As soon then as he had said unto them, I am (he), they went backward, and fell to the ground.


Jesus never said 'I am He". The King James got it wrong. Jesus asked them who they were looking for and they answered 'Jesus of Nazareth'. And then Jesus responded: Ego Eimi.

New Heart English Bible got it right:

New Heart English Bible
When therefore he said to them, "I AM," they went backward, and fell to the ground.

In your own words ," "I am " is the present. " Jesus said: "Before Abraham was,I am". In his statement,the subject is "Before Abraham.." (this is what dictates the flow & direction of the meaning we attach to Jesus statement). Indeed, it is very dubious of U to hang on to. "I am" .. to promote a fallacy that Christ himself & his apostles neither taught nor believed in (Matt16:13-17. John20:30,31). If we are to go along with your sophistry, "And he answered, I am". For that same reason too, Asahel is "I am". ( 2Sam2: 20). Ego eimi means "I exist" ,"I am", ( I dey exist , I done dey) that is the actual meaning of what Jesus said. In John chapter 8:12-58 , Jesus was talking about his proof for being the son of God & the source of his message. Naim una dey conjure slogan to defend falsehood. "Before Abraham dem born am, I done dey" . That's not rocket science.
In Exodus 3:14, the Hebrew phrase there is not "I am that I am". No follower of Christ or the the Jews ever said "I am that I am". Rather, the correct translation is: " I WILL BE WHAT I WILL BE".
Na the fake one naim una take to dey conjure slogan for falsehood.
(If U know, U know).

Hairyrapunzel:
Just the way you guys dubiously put jehovah 218 times in the new testament when it never appears once.

SERIAL LIAR & apostate, stay your lane. Gbawa oso sie eba puo !!!!!!!!!

Oga, U are simply looking for excuses where none exists. Before Abraham existed ,Jesus has been. It's not rocket science.
I know why ee dey pain U well well. Because. "I am" na your slogan to defend falsehood . Many Bible translations (including NWT) were correct to use other words synonymous with the Greek "ego eimi".
Maybe U go hire a competent English Teacher make them help U upgrade your understanding (Oga,U need am) . If U pretend or deceive yourself that U don't understand synonyms, that's your cup of tea.
U remind me of a meeting held recently where the minutes was read out. The Secretary wrote "Mr Bee moved the motion for adjournment with the assent of Mrs Obi" . But ,a member at the meeting vehemently opposed what the Secretary wrote. He demanded that the minutes be edited because he claimed that the Secretary wrote what is not correct. He wanted it amended to " ... Mr Bee moved the motion for adjournment & Mrs Obi seconded the motion.." Even though other members said the Secretary wrote it well, the man's ego won't allow him to concur.

Oga Pastor,I do it deliberately because I wan know wetin U get for mind. U come talk am, gbam!!
English is not hard 4 U &I to comprehend. ".. before Abraham came into existence, I have been.." (1)Christ had been in heaven . 2)Christ had existed in heaven,3) Chris had lived before in heaven). All these sentences in brackets all mean the same thing except your ability to comprehend is missing. Or U are simply looking for straws to grasp.
Oga Pastor, again, U are just being dishonest. Why did I say so ? U quoted 11(eleven) Bible translations of John 8:58, word for word their sentences were not exactly the same but U & I, understand that, but because U wan put "bad label" for NWT ,u are looking for what exists only in the figment of your imagination.
Oga,pls repent !!

Frankyboy1:
Change in mood swing,biological and psychological adjustments, mental fatigue,over familiarity can make one get tired of sex.there is no time table for sex, sometimes play d waiting game,give her some space,let her long for it, look good,smell nice nd sexy, tantalise her with care affection nd romance, when she thinks d next line of action os sex, withdraw! Sex sometimes is mental, stimulate her mind,nd let her not know wat next is coming, play d bad boy waiting game,bring some suspense and fun back, bring back those smiles nd let her eye lit up with ur suspense nd guessing whats coming next!nd bang when.it happens! It explodes like a tornado!sometimes it becomes lovemaking,sometimes rough fucking,it just comes in differnt shades and unexpected colors, Stop making it routinous and boring, like a drug u must take three times a week!

Bad ,badoo baddest !!!!!!!!
Rekindle the spark.

Oga Pastor ,"Ego eimi means "I am", "I exist" . U are just being dishonest, aside these Bible translations u quoted above, John 8:58 in 10 other versions reads "I exist". All of them ("I am", "I exist" are correct.
The point is that U guys dubiously assumed that "I am" means something else.
The wikipedia link I referred U to, explained everything in simple language but sorry to say,U prefer to be blind to it.

Primesky ,1John5:7, 1tim3:16 (KJV) were forgeries in the 16th century manuscripts. These are incontrovertible facts, your belief can't ever change that.
Now ,U done run go find solace in John 1:1-3. "in beginning was the word",Jesus had a beginning but Almighty God has no beginning. (Psalms 90:2.)
In John 1:1,the Greek manuscript reads "god" (in lowercase), that's not a reference to God the Almighty.(Psalm82:6. 1Cor8:6. 11:3.).
John 1:1 never said "the word" was "the god". Except, U deceitfully change "god" (lowercase,in the manuscript) to "God".(big letters,something not in the manuscript ).In English, does "god" & "God" have the same meaning. Pls be honest to yourself).
Hebrew1:1-3 gives U clearer understanding of John 1:1-3.
The revelation from heaven said "Jesus is the son of the living God" (matt16:13-17. John 20:30,31).
Between U & God in heaven, who is more credible?

PastorAIO:
Can you then please tell me what the translation of greek Ego Eimi is into english?

Don't say you can't speak greek, you can easily check in a dictionary or concordance. Please check. This is the source of all the investigation into JW that I'm doing. I wanted to know why it is so hard for JWs to translate Ego Eimi into english.

Pls stop grasping on straws & face the truth. The Greek word "ego eimi means "I am", "I exist". Christendom dubiously attached a false interpretation to John8:58 in a desperate bid to defend the Trinity fallacy.
(Ego eimi commonly appears in many verses of the scriptures John 9:8,9. 14:6. 2sam2:19,20. Ex3:14. Matt 8:9. 2sam20:17. Luke 1:18,19. etc).
In a nutshell,in John 8:58, Jesus actually meant that he existed in the spirit realm before Abraham existed & before Christ's earthly sojourn . (Any other different interpretation na story story).
"Ego eimi" means "I am", "I exist", is the first person singular present tense of the verb "to be" in ancient Greek. When used as a copula,with a predicate"" I am X", then usage is equivalent to English. When used alone,with out a predicate, " I am" , "he is", "they are" , typically mean " I exist"
Source : "Ego eimi wikipedia"
Pastor A10, Ego eimi simply means " I am", "I exist"
NWT & 10 other Bible translations has similar
rendition of John 8:58. Shalom

Mmmguy:
Plz I know there are men on this forum that has passed through what I'm facing.


I am a working class young man in his early 20s, my fiancee is in her final year in the university. She will have to do internship before service, so basically she still needs at least 3 years b4 she can settle down. she is younger than me. She is a virgin and I'm her first. She wanted us to wait till marriage which is still 3 yrs away based on her education. Our parents are aware of the relationship, so also is our religious leaders. I am not a virgin and as such it's difficult to wait. My job exposes me to different beautiful girls everyday and I give some free rides sometimes. In fact, I have one who intends to visit me this coming weekend but I haven't given her my final response. I have resorted to masturbation in order to quench my thirst for sex but it's not working.

She has made it known to me that she will rather quit than have sex before marriage.

My options are either to cheat or end the relationship ( I don't know of any other option for now). The latter is tough considering that we have both made sacrifices for the relationship, also her parents take me as their son. She is actually very good in other aspects including respect, submission, cooking, dressing etc. I don't want to loose a good woman yet I find it impossible to convince her. But I'm dying of konji everyday.

Anybody who has passed through this stage should pls give me the best advice.

P. S For the trolls here, I intentionally avoided romance section in order to get mature responses, so I wont dignify u with a response if u want to troll me.

OP: If u really love your fiancée,make una fix una wedding date sharp sharp. Discus with her. She too faces a battle as regards sex. No one is immune. Temptation is everywhere, bro. Is it a crime, if U guys get married NOW while she is school /internship? Just plan a low key wedding together & shikena! The longer u guys put off going to the aisle, the more small small things go dey come up & God forbid if..... adighi ama ama ooo (u know what I mean). Long courtship dey bring plenty gbege , I tell U. Never let a good girl walk away since U believe U've found one. Real men delay gratification through self discipline, prayers & God's infinite mercy. Pls, stay clear from one chance.

lookin4luv:
recently i just discovered that my husband still communicate with his ex girlfriend to the extend that the girl tells my husband any misunderstanding she has with her husband to be. they talk on phone almost everyday.
i called my husband and told him that it was not healthy to maintain a close relationship with one's ex esp with wat transpired between them but he said dat nothin can happen between them. and there is nothing wrong with being close to one's ex.
i am worried. i ve given my husband one month ultimatum to distance himself from his ex or i call the girl and tell her to distance her self from my husband.
please i need ur advice.
thanks.

That your one month ultimatum may not work.
Pls examine how U & hubby relate with each other. Are U still as close as the first time U fell in love? Maybe, both of U are not meeting each others emotional needs like u guys should& the ex happens to be there for him emotionally. Unconsciously, he gets closer to her & is carried away by attention from the other woman & vice versa. Pls ,spend quality time together often & restore the flow of good communication b/w U & hubby. Maybe, your hubby would eventually confide in U & then U can find ways to solve the matter. Pls avoid nagging. It solves nothing.

[quote author=Primesky post=68867387]Don't be deceived by this OP.

This is the season of great deception. Hold tight to your faith. The assault will increase because the devils time is short.

Jesus said it Himself that He and the Father are one. Let no man deceive you. Anybody who claims the bible is false, the same is a deceiver. From such, run away! [/quote
The OP is very correct. That verse ,1John5:7 as well as 1tim 3:16 (KJV) were forgeries. Jesus & his father are one in the same manner that Jesus & his disciples are one; Just as husband & wife are one..John 17:11,21. Amos3:3 ,Matt19:4-6. That is they are in agreement, cooperation, unity of thought & purpose.
Ignorance is still a curable disease.
Pls do a thorough research & find out the truth about the matter.

Wunmifun:
Isaiah 9:6 called Jesus "Mighty God" not "Almighty God"Exodus 6:2,3,secondly Psalms 103:20 said "angels are mighty in power",then John 1:1 said "the word WAS God",then Exodus 7:1 said "God made Moses God" In all of these one can conclude that Jesus is the word of God, he served as God, as wonderful counselor, as prince of peace, as everlasting father but presently Jesus is now serving as a King just like David on the throne that rightly belongs to his father. Why? Because right from the garden of Eden,Adam and Eve rejected God as their ruler, later God chose a nation(Israel) as HIS special possession but they also rejected HIM,then He allowed them to start having human Kings until the arrival of the Messiah (Jesús)Genesis 49:10,Isaiah 10:11, Ezekiel 21:27 Who must later rule for a thousand years(Revelations 20:6) to train obedient mankind and hand them over as loyal subjects to his God and Father again! John 20:17,1Corinthians 15:28,29 So Jesus (the word) WAS God for a period of time just as Moses also served as God for a period(Exodus 7:1) but presently he is no more serving in that position, that is why Apostle John could use a "past tense" saying "and the word (Jesus) WAS God" John 1:1 please take note of "WAS" not "IS" God!

Thank U,Wunmifun. Their brain always shut down whenever they attempt to twist God's word & defend falsehood.

Abjay97:
Tweets below and many more not here, have shown why the VAR might be Rascist after all...

The hand ball by Marcus Rojo who later turned out to be a hero for the Argentines was similar to the handball awarded to Portugal yesterday against Morocco an African team...

A lot of Africans and even Europeans are not happy with the decision of the VAR.

This same referee disallowed Neymars's goal for Barcelona against Juventus (2015 UCL final, Barca won 3-1), because Neymar headed the ball which deflected on his hand to score against Buffon.
Messi & Ronaldo are FIFA's hottest selling brand product. Why did VAR & the referee allow Mascherano to stay on the pitch with his bloody,bleeding face. Na FIFA rule be that? Dem kick Iheanacho face for 18 yard box but referee & him VAR gang come get eye problem dem no see am. ( Argentina & Iwuruwuru for world cup na siamese twins. Maradona even confess say him & his team mates take performance enhancing drugs wey make them beat Australia for USA '94 world cup qualifying play off. ) FIFA politics caused Nigeria's ouster from World cup.

Abjay97:
Tweets below and many more not here, have shown why the VAR might be Rascist after all...

The hand ball by Marcus Rojo who later turned out to be a hero for the Argentines was similar to the handball awarded to Portugal yesterday against Morocco an African team...

A lot of Africans and even Europeans are not happy with the decision of the VAR.

This same referee disallowed Neymars's goal against for Barcelona against Juventus (2015 UCL final, Barca won 3-1), because Neymar headed the ball towards his hand to score.
Messi & Ronaldo are FIFA's hottest selling brand product. Why did VAR & the referee allow Mascherano to stay on the pitch with his bloody,bleeding face. Na FIFA rule be that? Dem kick Iheanacho face for 18 yard box but referee & him VAR gang come get eye problem dem no see am. FIFA politics caused Nigeria's ouster from World cup.

does this silence from the christians implies the christians agree that the bible is corrupted from the points I gave?

Omo, them dey fear the truth. Them no want to hear anything wey go burst their fallacy.

PastorAIO:
Thank you for correcting that error. No, he didn't translate the bible in it's entirety but he loved to make up doctrines on the basis of greek words in the bible.

For instance Parousia. He used the reference to parousia in the New Testament to claim that Jesus had come to earth in 1874 but he was invisible.

Luckily Jesus had foreseen his likes and warned his followers:

Wherefore if they shall say unto you, Behold, he is in the desert; go not forth: behold, he is in the secret chambers; believe it not.


The JW bible, namely NWT, was translated by a committee and the only person amongst them that knew a little bit of shoddy greek was Franz. True or False?

Matthew 24:26

Again,U refused to admit that U LIED against Mr Charles Russell with your false claims that he committed perjury, when indeed no court of law ever adjudged on it. That link I shared exposed your falsehood.
Now, U done come again with your lies.
Make I help U small... go read the Wikipedia entry about NWT. Some praised it ,others criticised it that Jehovah appeared in the Greek Scriptures instead of kyrios (LORD). That criticism is expected. But U & I, know that "LORD" is a substitute for YHWH (thats Jehovah,Yahweh). & often times ,those passages where direct quotations of the old testament (OT)
For instance,Matt4:4 is a direct quote of Deut 8:3.,YHWH is there in the OT, not LORD.
Since Acts28:6 is "a god" then it is fraudulent to change John 1:1 to "God". (In the Greek manuscript it's lowercase "god". It's very clear that the NWT & 14 other Bible versions were more accurate than the popular ones which twist God's word.
The fact remains that NWT is among the best Bible versions available. Many persons I have met, who are not JWs own a copy& they attest that it's the most easy to read & understand. Actually,just like F.W.Franz, U don't need paper qualifications to study & gain understanding of God's word. A Committee of faithful ,God fearing Christians handled the project over many years & to Jehovah's glory, they did well. Shalom.

PastorAIO:
Mr Man, I've personally defended the 'and the word was a god' translation too many times in the past on this here obodo Nairaland. I cannot stop you from flogging this your straw man if that is your desperate intent.

However that is not the point I was raising. How did your oga, your diety, namely Charles Taze Russell, translate the bible when he admitted (finally) that he didn't understand greek?

Oga Pastor of falsehood, why U dey dodge to read the link I referred U to? U dey fear the truth? U still dey lie say Charles Russell " translated the Bible from Greek". Hahahahahaa.

[quote author=OneJ post=68801804]Pastor A10: Your posts above is an admixture of half truths & outright falsehood.
Why U dey dodge to read the link which I shared above,in my previous post? Una go dey "doctor" anything wey una see online & make false allegations
. Besides, your post was intended to defend the trinity fallacy & malign JWs for being against the popular version of John1:1. (Indeed, Acts28:6 proves John1:1 (KJV) to be a false rendition of the Greek text. If u know U know).
There are over 14 different bible versions
which reads "the word was a god" or "a god was the word".
Ask yourself "why" & find out what's behind it. These Bible versions were not translated or published by JWs.
Your allegations of perjury against C.T. Russell is built on quicksand. Who tell U say na him "translate the Bible. from Greek" ?